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Crew Evaluation System test online for seamans about Deck department, Operational level, Bulk Carrier

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Welcome to the website where you can pass online the CES test on the subject «Deck, Operational, Bulk Carrier». Practice like this will help you as a marine specialist improve your knowledge with the help of online studying and appraisal practice. CES based on practical information and marine specialists experience.

CES tests developed for evaluating seaman basic knowledge by Seagull Company (rebranded as «OTG»), is an evaluating online-tool, used for revealing any professional preparation needed in specific fields of knowledge, defined by STCW.

  • Version: 5.2.8, 5.3.3.
  • Test type: STCW.
  • Department: Deck.
  • Level: Operational.
  • Vessel type: Bulk Carrier.

CES tests have proven themselves as good tools for the selection and recruitment process, as well as advancing the level of knowledge of the current officers and crew. Ocean Technologies Group use various subjects for question creation, which includes:

  • Crowd and Crisis Management;
  • Integrated Navigation System (INS);
  • Ballast water management;
  • Handling and Stowage;
  • Vessel operation management and safety;
  • Marine engineering;
  • Maintenance and repair, etc.

Current test contains Seagull CES questions on the subject «Deck, Operational, Bulk Carrier». Those questions can be used for competence verification specialist capable of preventing accidental situations related with transporting safety, or also for self-examination.

«Operational» subject includes theoretical and practical information about advanced training for work on any type of vessel. Knowledge of this information directly shows employee’s competence who holds a relevant post on Bulk Carrier. Individuals in the Operational Deck department on a Bulk Carrier are responsible for overseeing and executing critical tasks related to the vessel’s day-to-day operations. Their duties include navigating the ship, ensuring adherence to the planned route, and coordinating with other crew members for safe and efficient cargo loading and unloading operations. Operational Deck personnel on a Bulk Carrier also contribute to the implementation of safety procedures, conduct routine inspections, and collaborate with the ship’s officers to maintain the overall operational integrity of the vessel.

On this site Crew Evaluation System Test on the subject «Deck, Operational, Bulk Carrier» contains 131 questions you need to answer with no possibility to go back to previous question. Therefore, we recommend carefully reading each question and making decision with no hurry. In case you have some difficulty answering, you have also possibility to request a hint.

The test includes three modes. In the Training mode, you go through 60 questions with the option to take a hint, while in the Exam mode, this option is not available. We have also developed another mode – Wild, where you can answer all the questions available in the test at once. Enjoy!

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Training - CES test
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Exam - CES test
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* Some questions may have more than 1 correct answer.

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Correct answers:

Use the search below to find question.

Amount of questions: 131.

Right answers marked with this sign .

Code: QQBE Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum knowledge of the vessel’s engine room and operation of its functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on Duty, and shall acknowledge his familiarization with the equipment by signing a check list listing all units he shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is:
He shall have all the knowledge as listed in the other alternatives.
Understand the function of all main and auxiliary equipment, e. g. machinery, pumps, fuel systems, cooling systems and the interlinks between various units and the function of them.
Check routines during operation and prior to switching to UMS-mode.
Start, operate and stop main and auxiliary machinery units, including switching between automatic, remote and/or manual control functions, and operate the various units in various modes.
Code: EODR On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term “ASTERN” shown. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship

Astern is defined as C on the figure.
Astern is defined as B on the figure.
Astern is defined as D on the figure.
Astern is defined as A on the figure.
Code: MBWF A very dusty cargo is to be loaded on a bulk carrier; what precautions on deck should be included?
All cranes, deck houses and storerooms fully closed down to prevent entry of dust.
No access allowed onto main deck.
No extra precautions need to be taken.
Decks washed down regularly.
Code: DBSU On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term “BOLLARD” given. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship #2

Bollard is given by C on the figure.
Bollard is given by D on the figure.
Bollard is given by B on the figure.
Bollard is given by A on the figure.
Code: KBJS In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the “Bridge”?

Scheme of the ship #3

The Bridge is indicated by A in the figure.
The Bridge is indicated by D in the figure.
The Bridge is indicated by B in the figure.
The Bridge is indicated by C in the figure.
Code: AXYU On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word “DRAUGHT” of the ship?

Scheme of the ship #4

Draught is indicated by D, in the figure.
Draught is indicated by B, in the figure.
Draught is indicated by C, in the figure.
Draught is indicated by A, in the figure.
Code: IVGQ On the figure there are four (4) possible directions, shown by the arrowed lines, which could be the correct direction associated with the term “HEAD LINE”. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship #5

Head line is given by C on the figure.
Head line is given by D on the figure.
Head line is given by B on the figure.
Head line is given by A on the figure.
Code: ICYJ On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term “WINDLASS”. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship #6

Windlass is given by C on the figure.
Windlass is given by D on the figure.
Windlass is given by B on the figure.
Windlass is given by A on the figure.
Code: HHIJ On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term “CENTRE LINE”. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship #7

Centre line is given by B on the figure.
Centre line is given by C on the figure.
Centre line is given by D on the figure.
Centre line is given by A on the figure.
Code: OWGN “Overshoot” is an expression we use when talking about a ship’s steering ability. What is the definition of this expression?
It is the way a ship turns when you put the helm in a hard over position.
It is how many degrees a ship continues to turn after you apply counter rudder.
It is the way a ship shoots forward when you give “a kick ahead”.
It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is put amidship.
Code: FHGM What is the correct understanding of the term “boat deck”?
The deck where the top of the lifeboats can be viewed.
The deck of a ship at the base of the accommodation.
The deck which is at the top of the double bottom tank on a cargo ship.
The deck where the lifeboats davits are positioned.
Code: NECK On the figure there are four (4) possible directions shown by the arrowed lines. Which one would correctly shows the direction understood by the term “AFTER SPRING”?

Scheme of the vessel

After spring is defined as B.
After spring is defined as C.
After spring is defined as D.
After spring is defined as A.

Code: XHJI In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the “Bridge”?

Position of the bridge

The Bridge is indicated by A.
The Bridge is indicated by B.
The Bridge is indicated by C.
The Bridge is indicated by D.

Code: DTIP Which is the “CAPSTAN”, in the figure?

Position of the capstan

The Capstan is indicated by A.
The Capstan is indicated by B.
The Capstan is indicated by C.
The Capstan is indicated by D.

Code: AXYU On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term “AIR DRAUGHT” given. Which one is the correct one?

Scheme of the ship

Air draught is indicated by D.
Air draught is indicated by B.
Air draught is indicated by C.
Air draught is indicated by A.

Code: JQFQ When could there be a demonstration of how to start a lifeboat engine?
A demonstration could be arranged during a lifeboat drill.
There is an instruction card inside the lifeboat showing how to start the engine.
A demonstration is not necessary, because there are a limited number of persons who given the responsibility for starting the lifeboat engine.
Starting the lifeboat engine is very easy and there does not need to be any demonstration.

Code: OWGN “Overshoot” is an expression related to a ship’s steering ability. What is the correct understanding of this expression?
It is how many degrees of the compass a ship continues to turn after applying counter-rudder.
It is the way a ship turns when putting the helm in a hard over position.
It is the amount a ship moves forward after the engines are stopped.
It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is pup amidships.

Code: DCLC What is the correct understanding of the term “gangway”?
Portable bridge arrangement between ship and shore, when alongside.
The ladder arrangement to allow walking access down the ship’s side into a boat alongside the vessel.
The access arrangements on an oil tanker between the bow and the after accommodation.
I don’t know.

Code: JAFM What is the correct understanding of the term “FAIRLEAD”?
The access point where mooring lines are lead when making fast to the shore.
A fairlead is the hole through the deck where the anchor chain passes into the chain locker.
A fairlead is the direction that a mooring rope makes from the ship when made fast to the shore.
I don’t know.

Code: YXWW When acting as helmsman would you expect the reading of the gyro compass to be the same as the magnetic compass?
Very seldom would they be the same.
They would never be the same.
They would always be within 1 or 2° of each other.
They would always be the same.

Code: GKPM On a fire patrol at night you see smoke coming from a closed cabin door. What action should you take first?
Activate the nearest fire alarm button and advise bridge of the location of the fire.
Take a look inside the cabin to see what the situation is.
Get the nearest fire extinguisher and then open the door to see what the situation is.
As most people are sleeping, call a friend and ask him to assist in putting out the fire.

Code: TNOD Could a lift be considered as an escape route from the engine room?
No.
Yes.
Yes, if it is constructed with class A materials.
It depends on the distance of the escape route.

Code: LVXI The aim of fire detection is:
All the answers are correct.
To discover where a fire starts.
To activate the alarm.
To begin applying an emergency plan.

Code: DQKN In which one of the following an oil, the flash point of which only needs to be over 43 °C, may be used?
In emergency generators.
In the main engine.
In the kitchen.
In inert gas generators.

Code: CDBN According to their physical state, extinguishing agents may be classified in to:
Solid, liquid and gases.
Solid, proteinic and gases.
Synthetic, proteinic, gases and liquid.
Proteinic and synthetic.

Code: AISX In a smoke filled alleyway where will the cleanest air be found, and how should you proceed out?
Near to the deck, crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible.
Sit and wait for the rescue party.
It will be the same in all parts, therefore I would just leave as quickly as possible.
Towards the upper part, stand as tall as possible and walk out.

Code: YQPX What is flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas?
The flashpoint for an oil or liquefied gas is the temperature at which it is possible to ignite the vapour above the liquid.
The flashpoint is the temperature needed to have a oil or liquefied gas pumpable.
The flashpoint is the mixture of oxygen and hydrocarbons needed to have an oil or liquefied gas to burn.
The flashpoint is the temperature the oil or liquefied gas need for self ignition.

Code: EKXF In general what is the proportion of concentrate to water to produce foam?
Between 3 % and 6 %.
Between 50 % and 100 %.
Over 100 %.
This operation is done automatically and in relation to the foam.

Code: BRKU In order to extinguish a flammable liquid of the same kind as alcohol, we can use:
Anti-alcohol foam.
Sprayed water.
Water and foam.
Water.

Code: GBCC Monoammonium phosphate used as a dry powder can be effective on which of the following type of fire?
Solid, liquids, and gases.
Liquid and gases.
Metals.
Solid, liquid, gases and metals.

Code: XPNH What is the absolutely main purpose with fighting a fire on board?
Rescuing of life.
Try to put out the fire.
To put out the fire.
To limit the fire.

Code: GDRY The fire point is:
The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn in contact with oxygen in air, and at which combustion persists once the source of ignition has been removed.
The maximum pressure that will be reached when a given combustible burns into an enclosed space.
The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn when they are in contact with oxygen in air, when there is a presence of activation energy; but with no capacity of maintaining combustion.
A process of chemical decomposition by oxidation-reduction at unusually high temperature, in areas with slight ventilation.

Code: SKFX Which of the following are frequent causes of fires in accommodation?
1 – Smoking in bed, 2 – Covering of electric fires with blankets, 3 – overloading electric plugs.
Smoking in bed.
Covering of electric fires with blankets.
Overloading electric plugs.

Code: UHFQ When is a visitor onboard required to present an ID?
On SECURITY Level 1, 2 & 3.
Only on SECURITY Level 3.
On SECURITY Level 2 & 3.
Never.

Code: UCXR Which statement about IED’s is true?
All IED’s have four common components.
IED’s don’t cause serious damage.
IED’s are difficult to manufacture.
All IED’s looks like.

Code: YPYM Which of these are indications that a parcel is suspicious?
The parcel is addressed to no one in particular, arrives unexpectedly and seems heavy for its size.
The parcel smells like chocolate.
The parcel came from Joe in the safety department and arrived quicker than expected.
The parcel is wrapped in clean, brown paper and is addressed to a crewmember from his wife.

Code: IHKR Which of these are indicators that an individual may be a drug smuggler?
The individual wears bulky or out of season clothing.
The individual spends his or her free time hanging out with others.
The individual makes small local purchases.
The individual is disinterested in the ship’s cargo.

Code: KGMX What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan?
Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.
Outline specific measures for your ship to move from security level 1 to 2 and from 2 to 3.
Detail the duties of shipboard personnel assigned security responsibilities.
Outline the organizational structure for the ship.

Code: NJMP Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is located during a search?
Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious.
Place the object in a desk drawer or file cabinet.
Throw the object overboard.
Cover the suspicious object with a box or blanket.

Code: IFXF The best way to identify an IED is to:
Recognize its components.
Weight the object.
Shake the object.
Measure the size of the object.

Code: QQNT Which of these types of information is considered sensitive?
Voyage itinerary and departure and arrival times.
Planned maintenance schedule and emergency response procedures.
Way points and training records.
Ship schematic and HR policies.

Code: PEIT Which of these weapons are widely available and commonly used by criminals and terrorists to further their aims?
Gun.
Incendiary device.
Vehicle borne device.
Liquid explosive.

Code: NMTT What is an IED?
A homemade bomb.
An incendiary device.
An explosive.
A type of gun.

Code: IELO This device can detect a package of drugs inside a large delivery of ship’s stores. What is it?

Pallet scanner

Pallet scanner.
Vapour detector.
Access control system.
Security container.

Code: MDRU Which of the following areas may be possible restricted areas? Review all answers.
All alternatives.
The Engine control room.
The Cargo control room.
The Bridge.

Code: VVBI Which Security Levels requires the highest security alert?
Security Level 3.
Security Level 2.
Security Level 1.
Security Level 4.

Code: QWIA Which type of equipment can be used to detect explosives?
Particulate detector.
Water cannon.
CCTV.
Metal detector.

Code: SWFO When handling drugs:
Wear skin protection and a facemark.
Shut off the ventilation in the room where the drugs are being stored to ensure any vapours or fumes do not spread to other parts of the ship.
Test out the potency of the drug.
Briefly inhale powders, fumes or vapours to verify the substance is a drug.

Code: KDBI During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?
Do not touch any suspicious packages.
Throw any suspicious items overboard.
Know exactly what a bomb looks like.
Try to reach behind bulkheads to find a bomb.

Code: NVCD What do crew, visitors and contractors all have in common?
They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs.
They’re all onboard the ship for the duration of its voyage.
They’re all trained in ship emergency procedures.
They’re all employees of the ship.

Code: KGMX What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan?
Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.
Outline specific measures for your ship to move from security level 1 to 2 and from 2 to 3.
Detail the duties of shipboard personnel assigned security responsibilities.
Outline the organizational structure for the ship.

Code: OWWM Which of these procedures should crew follow when conducting a bomb search?
Stand quietly in various spots around the space, listening for unusual sounds like the tick tock of a clock mechanism.
Wait in the area they’ve finished searching until they’re contacted for a status update.
Conduct random or spot checks of logical threat areas.
Search the perimeter of the space up to a height of 5 feet.

Code: IFXF The best way to identify an IED is to:
Recognize its components.
Weight the object.
Shake the object.
Measure the size of the object.

Code: RJUQ If drugs are discovered onboard your ship:
Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident report.
Disembark crew and passengers as quickly as possible at the next port of call so the authorities can conduct their investigation.
Write a report a few days after the event and describe everything that occurred.
Notify the authorities after you arrive at the next port of call.

Code: KWKK Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code a part of?
SOLAS.
MARPOL.
STCW-95.
The Anti Terrorist International Agreement.

Code: JNYL Searches are often triggered by:
An increase in security level by the Flag State.
The receipt of a shipment of damaged stores.
Lost baggage.
News stories of stowaways.

Code: QGUN The Declaration of Security:
Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a port facility and a ship.
Details a ship’s security measures.
States the reporting procedures to government contact points.
Identifies the security responsibilities of shipboard personnel.

Code: CSVA One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:
Security arrangements.
Threat scenarios.
Ship security survey.
Weaknesses in security measures.

Code: BJXI Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
Company Security Officer.
Flag State Administration.
Ship Security Officer.
Recognized Security Organization.

Code: ASFG Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate?
The Flag State.
The Port State.
The insurance company.
US Coast Guard.

Code: VGGB What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1?
The percentage is not specified.
5-15 % of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.
25-50 % of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.
100 % of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.

Code: BMHG Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true?
A random selection process must be established.
Detection equipment can be used in place of profiling.
Profilers need at least half an hour to gather the information they need.
Only visitors can be profiled.

Code: GGRN Who is responsible for completing the DoS on behalf of the ship?
Ship Security Officer.
Chief Engineer.
Company Security Officer.
Chief Officer.

Code: FLMJ If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil burning near a bulkhead of the engine room?
The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire.
The applicator should be used in a sweeping motion to spread the foam over the surface.
The foam should be applied to the centre of the fire.
The foam should be aimed at about 45° upwards so that it can drop onto the fire.

Code: OSDQ Who is authorised to operate lifting equipment around the ship?
Those ship’s personnel who have been assessed as competent and are duly authorised to do so by the master as per the procedures as outlined in the ship’s SMS system.
Deck officers and ratings, engineering officers and ratings, GP crew if applicable, who are in possession of crane operation training certificates issued by the company.
Stevedores manufacturer’s maintenance engineers and senior ratings only.
All the deck officers and ratings and selected engine-room personnel.

Code: QYUD What kind of safety clothing should be worn during a mooring operation?
Helmet, safety shoes, gloves and protective clothes.
Gloves and helmet.
Safety shoes and boiler suit.
No particular safety clothes are required.

Code: LIDV In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction “ASTERN”?

Scheme - astern

Astern is indicated by D.
Astern is indicated by B.
Astern is indicated by A.
Astern is indicated by C.

Code: FNCM What is understood by the term “Boat Drill”?
“Boat Drill” means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship.
“Boat Drill” is an exercise to launch the lifeboats and move the boats clear of the ship.
“Boat Drill” is an exercise in the practical and safe methods to secure a boat alongside the ship.
I don’t know.

Code: JYQS Where may as a general rule pressure containers for gas fire-extinguishing medium be kept? SOLAS II-2/5.1.10.
Outside the space which is to be protected.
Above bulkhead deck.
In the space which is to be protected.
In cold storages.
Code: TMQK What is the correct understanding of the term “Block Coefficient” as applied to a ship?
The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same extreme dimensions.
The ratio of the waterplane shape of the ship to a rectangle of the same extreme dimensions.
The restriction of a valve in a pipe to the flow of fluid through that pipe.
The coefficient of a Block and Tackle.
Code: LGSE How can the effects of “Squat” be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water?
Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage.
Enter the shallow water with a stern trim and proceed at a moderate speed.
Decrease the speed and keep the ship to the centre of the channel where the water is probably deepest.
Maintain a speed of about 6 knots and use minimal rudder when manoeuvring.
Code: WJBE When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and current?
All of the suggested answers.
To appreciate the possible extent of drift and dangers in the event of engine failure.
To determine the time required to reach the next alteration of course point.
To determine the correction required to the course steered to maintain the planned passage.
Code: FRGY If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of the echo and not a vector.
The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
The target is stopped and making no way through the water.
The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship.
The target is on a collision course with own ship.
Code: PETM Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the ARPA for anti-collision purposes?
The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-collision purposes.
The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship.
True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships.
Code: SMBG Via Inmarsat-C a message is sent to an Inmarsat-C mailbox with a positive delivery notification (PDN). The ground station will:
Send a PDN, if the message has arrived in the mailbox.
Send no PDN’s with messages intended for the mailbox.
Send a PDN, as soon as the message is collected from a mailbox.
Code: KUPP With an Inmarsat-C installation there is the addressing-option “special”. Via this option:
Give one of Inmarsat’s “special access codes”.
You can send a message by express delivery.
You can deliver a message via a special telegram.
Code: JGNK To guarantee optimal reception of VHF-DSC calls, every:
DSC-symbol is sent twice and checked extra by Error Check Character.
DSC-report is sent twice, at least every second call is compared with the earlier received call.
DSC-calls are repeated until received.
DSC-symbol is checked on the right amount of 10, and then checked on the correct relation by Error Checked Character.
Code: QKSH What paint coating should be used in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier, when the hold may be used for the carriage of grains?
Approved for use in cargo spaces that may carry edible cargoes.
Any paint type can used in these spaces.
Paint must be epoxy based.
Cargo spaces must not be painted.
Code: WITB When can a partly loaded bulk cargo space be entered when the vessel is at sea?
For hatch cleaning purposes.
On instructions from the CPO (Bosun).
At any time.
In no circumstances except possibly in an emergency.
Code: OJHE A stevedore is working in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier while completing discharge of a concentrate cargo. You suddenly notice that he appears to be taken ill. You should:
Assume problem due to lack of oxygen and/or toxic gas and rescue with self-contained breathing apparatus.
The foreman stevedore will deal with this situation.
Immediately enter space and give first aid.
Assume possible heart attack and give CPR.
Code: CTSK On a bulk carrier at the completion of loading and before closing hatch covers, the track ways must be:
Track ways swept and checked clear of obstructions.
No sweeping required.
Track ways washed down.
No specific checks.
Code: NFRF When preparing the hold of a bulk carrier for cargo when that hold has previously been ballasted, which of the following must be checked?
Previous cargo swept out.
The ballast lines must be blanked off and the bilge lines opened and tested.
The heating coils fitted.
Paint coating re-painted.
Code: RUUF What must be done after completion of ballasting operations on a bulk carrier?
All valves closed, tank ventilators in open position and sounding pipe caps replaced.
Sounding pipe caps left off.
All valves and lines left open.
All valves closed and tank ventilators to closed position.
Code: WDBR Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher?
Blue.
Green.
Black.
Yellow.

Code: FLMJ If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil burning near a bulkhead of the engine room?
The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire.
The foam should be aimed at about 45° upwards so that it can drop onto the fire.
The applicator should be used in a sweeping motion to spread the foam over the surface.
The foam should be applied to the centre of the fire.

Code: FCWR The method of extinction by smothering is based on this basis:
The fire extinguished by avoiding the contact between the fuel vapours and the oxygen.
The fire is extinguished by eliminating the heat so as to obtain a temperature at which the fuel doesn’t give off enough vapour.
The fire is extinguished by interrupting the chain reaction, as it stops the transmission of heat by means of the action of chemical agents.
The fire is extinguished by avoiding the contact between the fuel vapours and the hot surface.

Code: QXAK Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case of a fire?
Extinguishing attempt is started immediately.
All fire-fighting teams are organized as soon as possible.
All possible fire-fighting equipment is brought to the scene.
Call the Chief Officer.

Code: TNOX What is the inherent danger in welding/cutting in piping containing freon?
Development of nitrous gases.
Depletion of the ozone layer.
Depletion of oxygen in the air.
Development of explosive gases.

Code: GMOE Among the additives used to improve the effectiveness of water in the fight against fire there are the moisturing ones. What is the task they perform?
They reduce the surface tension of water.
They increase the viscosity of water.
They protect the fuel with a thin covering that holds up the ignition.
They protect the fuel with a thin covering that holds up the ignition and they increase the viscosity of water.

Code: CJHL One of the checks during the annual Class survey of the UMS functions is focusing on cleanliness of the engine room. What is the reason for such a check?
To reduce the general risk of fire in an unmanned engine room.
To avoid frequent alarms.
To have the engine room looking tidy.
To prevent risk of pollution.

Code: TXKL What is the main advantage of a positive pressure breathing apparatus?
If the face mask has a leak toxic fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask.
It ensures a constant supply of air.
The positive pressure makes it easier to breathe when working hard.
It is less complicated and cheaper than a breathing apparatus of the demand type.

Code: DBBK What is the minimum capacity of the portable tank of a portable foam applicator?
1 litre.
10 litres.
20 litres.
5 litres.

Code: ACPG How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires?
By smothering and also by providing some cooling.
The heat from the fire causes the foam to produce an inert gas which gradually extinguishes the fire.
By cooling only.
By smothering only.

Code: MUNT If a fire starts in the fuel tanks of a vessel, the fire will be:
A class B fire.
A class A fire.
A class E fire.
A class D fire.

Code: UCDU The extinguishing agent which can be applied on any fires of class A, B or C is:
Multipurpose powder.
CO2.
Halon.
Sprayed water.
All designated SAR aircraft and civil aircraft carry equipment operating on the international aeronautical distress frequencies (amplitude modulation). The aeronautical distress frequencies are?
121,5 MHz and/or 243,0 MHz.
243,1 MHz and/or 486,2 MHz.
156,8 MHz and/or 406,0 MHz.
121,0 MHz and/or 245,0 MHz.
What would be the correct definition of the term “Squat“?
Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.
Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.
Squat refers to the increase in buoyancy of a ship in deep water.
Squat is the increase in underkeel clearance when a ship is in motion.
A vessel is making sternway with the engine stopped and the rudder hard to starboard. What effect will this have on the vessel?
Depending on the vessel, there may be a small starboard swing develop.
Depending on the vessel, there may be a small port swing develop.
The vessel will maintain a straight course without any swing.
The vessel will turn sharply to the starboard side.
Whilst un-mooring, a vessel is to “single up” to a line. Which of the following methods should be used to hold the line before “letting go”?

Methods of holding the line

The line should be turned up on the bitts, fig. 1.
The line should be like on fig. 2.
The line should be kept on the warping drum of a deck winch, fig. 3.
The line should be like on fig. 4.
The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?

Arpa radar

True vectors.
Relative vectors.
Absolute vectors.
Dynamic vectors.
Which of the four figures shows the correct construction of an Intercept Terminal Point (ITP) after a morning sight reduction? Bearing of the sun: 135°, Intercept: 2′ Towards.

Intercept Terminal Point

Figure 1 is correct.
Figure 2 is correct.
Figure 3 is correct.
Figure 4 is correct.
Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in Latitude 30°00′ North; when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun’s Declination is 15°00′ South?

Scheme of the Meridian

Figure 1 is correct.
Figure 2 is correct.
Figure 3 is correct.
Figure 4 is correct.
Notification logging procedures (OPA-90):
Every report or message must be logged including time and date.
Only communication with USCG.
Only significant incidents need to be logged.
Logs should be maintained for a minimum of one year.
If Mouth-to-Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty’s heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete rate when performing ECC?
Complete 10 compressions at the rate of 40 compressions per minute.
Complete 15 compressions at the rate of 60 compressions per minute.
Complete 20 compressions at the rate of 80 compressions per minute.
Complete 30 compressions at the rate of 100 compressions per minute.
If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following actions is the first to be taken?
Raise the fire alarm.
Call the officer on duty.
Attempt to extinguish the fire immediately.
Evacuate the area around the fire.
The prescribed test of an approved portable VHF radio set (portophone) must be done once a:
Year.
Quarter.
Month.
Week.
If one wishes to make a collect call from a vessel to a shore subscriber, one must:
Request for telephone message stating name, address and telephone number.
Request for a collect call.
Provide a credit card number for the call.
Call the operator to connect the call.
The ID of an Inmarsat-M station on board starts with:
4.
5.
6.
7.
An Inmarsat-C terminal is suitable for:
Store and forward message.
Telex only.
Voice communication only.
Fax transmission only.
By a “geographical area call” in the DSC system is meant:
A DSC-message for all vessels within a certain area marked by a reference position, given in the DSC message and the degrees are given in southerly and easterly direction.
A DSC-message for all ships in a particular ocean region.
A DSC-message for all vessels in distress.
A DSC-message for all vessels equipped with VHF radios.
A distress-call, onboard via RCC, may only be given Receipt if:
The OOW deems it necessary.
The captain orders.
The crew agrees.
The communication officer is available.
When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio-connection, you always work:
Duplex.
Half-duplex.
Full-duplex.
Simplex.
The proper operation of an Inmarsat C-terminal can be tested by:
Doing a “link test”.
Requesting a “self test”.
Checking the power supply.
Performing a software update.
With maintenance of batteries it is of primary importance that:
There is proper relative humidity in the space where the batteries are stored.
The space where the batteries are stored is properly ventilated.
The batteries are kept at a constant temperature.
The batteries are stored in a dark environment.
How many total frequencies are available for DSC distress alerting?
Two (2).
Five (5).
Seven (7).
Ten (10).
On area A3 the function “Transmission and reception of on scene communications” is mainly based on:
The use of MF and/or VHF R/T.
The use of DSC and/or INMARSAT C.
The use of HF radio.
The use of satellite communication only.
Where a fixed fire detection system does not include means of remotely identifying each detector individually, detectors are grouped in “sections“. These sections may cover up to:
5 enclosed spaces.
10 enclosed spaces.
20 enclosed spaces.
50 enclosed spaces.
What alarm signal must be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire?
One long blast followed by seven short blasts.
Three short blasts followed by one long blast.
The signal which is stated in the muster list.
Continuous ringing of the bells for two minutes.
If a DSC distress alert is received on board your ship, what is the first action that should be taken?
Immediately answer the distress message on the correct radio frequency.
Notify the captain of the distress alert.
Prepare to launch a rescue operation.
Listen for a distress message on the appropriate radio frequency for five minutes.
What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried out on board?
Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place, monitor the work activity and review.
Requires a great deal of preparation and involves recording everything on paper.
Only involves identifying hazards without further action.
Is a one-time process that does not need to be reviewed.
When carried in bulk, which of the following cargoes is most likely to liquefy due to compression and/or vibrations?
Wheat.
Iron ore concentrates.
Coal.
Sand.
Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out:
When passing from a cool to a relatively warm climate.
When the cargo is loaded.
When atmospheric air temperature is falling.
When the ship is in port.
Cargo on a bulk cement carrier is normally discharged by:
Using its own pumping system and equipment.
Using grabs provided by the terminal operator.
Using conveyor belts.
Using cranes for unloading.
The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so as:
To allow water and large particles of cargo to drain into the bilges.
To facilitate the cleaning of the bilges.
To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges.
To reduce the weight of the cargo.
What is the correct understanding of the term “Lapse Rate” when used in Meteorology?
The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea level.
The delay in temperature reduction associated with the wet bulb thermometer of a hygrometer.
The rate at which humidity increases with altitude.
The difference in temperature between day and night at sea level.
What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the International Load Line Rules?
0,15 metres.
0,5 metres.
0,3 metres.
0,2 metres.
Which is the correct term given to the company providing stores and provisions to a ship in port?
The ship chandler.
The ship’s agent.
The port authority.
The cargo handler.
When loading a bulk carrier at a high loading rate, the vessel will experience highest tension in bottom structure:
If she is trimmed by the head at any time during the operation.
During loading of heavy cargo in midship section.
When the vessel is at rest in the port.
During the discharge of cargo from the aft section.
With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction means that:
The cargo may self-heat on voyage, and may be liable to flow around the hold bottom.
The cargo will harden and become unmovable during the voyage.
The cargo may suffer moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the top of the stow.
The cargo will expand and take up more space in the hold.
A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10,00 m when in salt water. She is currently floating in dock water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. Her maximum draught at completion of loading should be:
10,08 metres.
10,80 metres.
10,50 metres.
10,20 metres.
Which option best describes what lies below an isolated danger symbol seen on the chart display of an ECDIS?
There could be any obstruction that infringes the safety depth settings.
There is a wreck from a sunken vessel.
The area is safe for navigation.
There are underwater cables in the vicinity.
When a character in the NAVTEX message sent is not received in the proper way:
Nothing or a special character will be printed.
The message will not be printed at all until, with repeated transmission, it can be automatically compared and corrected.
The message will be printed with the last known correct data.
The message will be printed, but with a delay in transmission.
Which of the following is a coast station MMSI?
227530000.
227530.
2275300.
22753.
The frequency 121,5 MHz is used for:
COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBS.
DSS VHF calls.
Routine ship-to-ship communications.
Weather broadcasts.
What is the acronym FR 01?
Call sign.
Emergency frequency.
AAIC.
Navigation aid.
Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out…
When atmospheric air temperature is falling.
When passing from a cool to a relatively warm climate.
Only during loading and unloading operations.
When the humidity level is high.
If the cargo loading rate on a bulk carrier exceeds the de-ballasting rate and thereby affecting the hull stresses, the OOW must…
Notify the stevedoring foreman and ask him to stop loading for a while.
Adjust the ballast water manually.
Notify the port state authority with whom the loading plan has been lodged.
Increase the loading rate to balance the stresses.
What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position.
The error due to deviation is large for that ship’s heading.
The compass is affected by nearby electronic equipment.
The ship’s hull is made of non-magnetic materials.
What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface?
Load fluids only into tanks with transverse subdivision bulkheads.
Increase the overall weight of the cargo.
Reduce the number of slack tanks.
Use only one tank for loading fluids.
Which option best completes the following statement? An operator using ECDIS will notice an out of position navigation buoy because..
…the radar return and ENC buoy symbol will not coincide.
…there will be a flashing alarm on ECDIS showing which one is out.
…the ECDIS will display a warning message.
…the operator will receive a notification from the coast guard.
Which option gives the correct meaning of the letters GB and the number 5 in the chart cell identifier GB50344?
The GB means from Great Britain, the 5 means it is for ocean use.
The GB indicates a general area, and the 5 indicates the scale of the chart.
A chart made by the UKHO for harbour usage.
The GB refers to a government body, and the 5 indicates the year of publication.
The vessel enters a turn at full speed and the engine set full ahead. If the engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there be any change in the turning diameter?

Yes, the turning diameter will increase slightly if the engine speed is reduced.
Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if the engine speed is reduced.
No, there will be no change in the turning diameter.
The turning diameter will remain the same until the vessel stops.
If you are called upon to reeve a new wire onto a self-stowing winch drum you would, after looking at brake arrangement, reeve it to pay out as follows:

Depends on the lay of the wire strands.
Direction A.
Direction B.
It does not matter which direction is used.
You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be?
25 nautical miles off the coast.
This is prohibited.
Allowed beyond 12 nautical miles.
Only prohibited in territorial waters.
What is the correct understanding of the term “Bending moments” when applied to ships?
The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total moments tending to alter the longitudinal shape of the ship.
All of the suggested answers.
The transverse stress on the hull plating due to sea waves.
The rotational force caused by the ship’s rudder during maneuvering.
The ID of an Inmarsat M station on board starts with:
4.
3.
9.
6.
A DSC-message of the “safety” category is received from another vessel on VHF-channel 70. Conforming to the GMDSS rules, for the continuation of the safety traffic, you must change to VHF-channel:
16.
70.
13.
06.
What is the minimum number of “international shore connections” that should be provided on vessels of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
2.
3.
1.
4.
If a DSC distress alert is received on board your ship, what is the first action that should be taken?
Listen for a distress message on the appropriate radio frequency for five minutes.
Determine how close your vessel is to the distressed vessel.
Notify the coast guard immediately.
Initiate a search and rescue operation immediately.
What is the minimum distance between the helmet and the head of the wearer supposed to be?
1 cm.
2 cm.
4 cm.
3 cm.
When handling drugs…
Shut off the ventilation in the room where the drugs are being stored to ensure any vapours or fumes do not spread to other parts of the ship.
Store drugs only in unlocked cabinets.
Wear skin protection and a facemask.
Use no personal protective equipment.
After a fresh water rinse, presence of salt in the hold of a bulk carrier can be tested…
Using silver nitrate which should remain colourless in the presence of salt.
Testing with litmus paper for acidity.
By carrying out silver nitrate tests which should turn milky in the presence of chlorides.
Smelling for saltiness in the hold.
A good indicator of the possibility of cargo damage on a bulk carrier is…
Commencing discharge in the absence of a cargo surveyor.
Delays in paperwork processing.
Visible rust on the deck.
The presence of hatch cover sealing tapes.
Which of these is not used to discharge bulk grain?
Pumps.
Elevators.
Conveyors.
Grab buckets.
Super-refraction effects the performance of some bridge devices on the vessel. What should the bridge watchkeeper look out for?
The radar will be show abnormal sea clutter as the pulse is trapped in an atmospheric layer.
Reduced VHF radio range and radar detection.
Delayed radar echoes due to atmospheric delay.
Abnormal ranges of VHF radio and very long range radar detection.
What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea?
The depth of an iceberg below the surface is always about one sixth of its total depth.
The depth varies depending on the water temperature.
The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
Icebergs are completely submerged below the surface.
What does this two flag hoist mean, as mentioned in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at sea?

I require medical assistance.
I am maneuvering with difficulty.
You are running into danger.
It is a distress signal.
With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction means that…
The cargo may self-heat on voyage, and may be liable to flow around the hold bottom.
The cargo may suffer moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the top of the stow.
The cargo may shift due to improper lashing.
The cargo may liquefy due to vibration and lose stability.
When someone is working at height, who is at risk? Select the best option.
There are risks to people at height and anyone below them.
There are risks to the people doing the job only.
Only the supervisor is at risk.
No one is really at risk if safety harnesses are used.
Which option correctly completes the following statement? When an ECDIS system is in DR mode…
…it stops working not showing the position on the screen or freezing the last position.
…it automatically switches to GPS mode.
…it shows only nautical charts without position updates.
…it is probably using the course and speed through the water for position update.
What does this character indicate, ‘by 12’, when seen on an ECDIS display showing official ENC charts?
VHF channel 12 to be used.
Port of call 12.
Navigation buoy number 12.
Radio beacon 12.
What happens when an ECDIS performs a route validation or safety check?
The whole route is checked to see that it complies with accepted standards of passage planning.
The route is checked only for weather conditions.
The route is verified by a shore authority.
The whole route is checked for possible dangerous objects along it.

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