Welcome to the website where you can pass online the Seafarer Evaluation Training System (SETS) Plus test. Practice like this will help you as a marine specialist improve your knowledge with the help of online studying and appraisal practice. SETS based on practical information and marine specialists experience.
SETS tests developed for evaluating seaman basic knowledge by company “Naval Education Services” is an evaluating online-tool, used for revealing any professional preparation needed in specific fields of knowledge, defined by STCW Section A-V/1-2.
SETS tests have proven themselves as good tools for the selection and recruitment process, as well as advancing the level of knowledge of the current officers and crew.
Current test contains SETS Plus questions. Those questions can be used for competence verification specialist capable of preventing accidental situations related with transporting safety, or also for self-examination.
«SETS Plus» includes theoretical and practical information about advanced training for work on any type of vessel. SETS Plus is an advanced maritime training program that combines theoretical knowledge with practical skills for professionals working on all vessel types. The test evaluates candidates’ understanding of modern navigation systems, including radar operation, ECDIS and electronic positioning. Participants must demonstrate proficiency in engine room operations, covering both conventional and automated propulsion systems. A key focus area is emergency preparedness, testing response procedures for fire, flooding and other critical situations. The assessment includes scenario-based questions on pollution prevention and compliance with MARPOL regulations. Trainees are evaluated on their ability to interpret technical documentation and apply troubleshooting techniques. Practical components test hands-on skills in equipment operation and maintenance procedures. Successful completion certifies that candidates meet international standards (STCW) for advanced shipboard operations.
On this site SETS Plus contains 1818 questions. You need to answer on 60 questions, with no possibility to go back to previous question. Therefore, we recommend carefully reading each question and making decision with no hurry. In case you have some difficulty answering, you have also possibility to request a hint.
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Amount of questions: 1818.
Right answers marked with this sign .
How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor?
By switching all three connections on the motor terminal.
By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal.
The direction of rotation cannot be changed.
By reversing the frequency.
A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show?
100 Amps.
33,3 Amps.
0 Amps.
110 Amps.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.
What type of equipment is this symbol showing?
A DC series motor.
An AC shunt motor.
A DC shunt motor.
A DC combined shunt and series motor.
What type of equipment is represented by this symbol?
A DC series motor.
A DC combined series and shunt motor.
A compound motor.
A shunt motor.
What is the purpose of a «Y/Delta» starter?
To start either a D or an Y connected motor.
To regulate large AC motors.
To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.
To reduce the start time for an AC motor.
What does the symbol in the diagram show?
The windings of a three pole DC shunt motor.
The windings of a three phase AC «Y» connected motor with earthed neutral.
The windings of a three pool DC «Y» connected motor.
The windings of a three phase «D» connected motor.
The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few minutes even though the bilge is empty. What action would you take?
Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board.
Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit board for this alarm group.
Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps.
Start the bilge pump.
What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?
A PT 100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.
A T802 (Thermistor) probe.
A NiCr/NiAl-type К (Thermocouple) probe.
A mercury thermometer probe.
Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.
Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.
Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.
All of these options.
The voltage in a 60 Hz AC generator is adjusted by………
the number of poles.
the speed of the engine of the generator.
the magnetic field strength.
the number of series conductors.
In dense fog you detect another vessel on the radar at 5 miles range on the port side, it is crossing and on a collision course. What action would you take?
Stand on with caution.
Make a broad alteration of course to port.
Make a broad alteration of course to starboard.
Stop engines.
You are on watch at night and you stop the main engines. What changes would you make to your navigational lights?
Switch the steaming lights off.
Switch on three vertical red lights.
Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off all other navigational lights.
Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off steaming lights.
You sight a vessel restricted by her ability on your port bow, crossing and on a collision course. What action would you take?
Alter course to port.
Alter course to starboard.
Stop engines.
Stand on.
You expect to sight land at 2100. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is good. What action would you take?
Keep looking out.
Call the master.
Stop engines.
Alter course.
What does the picture show?
The master gyro compass.
The engine control console.
The emergency steering position in the steering flat.
The automatic pilot console.
What instrument indicator is shown on the right of the picture?
The steering gear pressure indicator.
The bridge barometer.
The engine RPM indicator.
The rudder angle indicator.
What does the picture show?
An auxiliary engine.
A compressor.
A generator.
A purifier.
What does the picture show?
Quick release gear.
Hydrostatic release gear.
A life boat falls wires and hoisting winch.
A portable lifeboat engine.
What does the encircled part of the picture show?
Engine cooling water intake.
Circular type advanced rudder.
Engine exhaust underwater discharge.
Propeller guard capable of vectoring thrust.
Which of the following is a vessel «not under command»?
A vessel engaged in underwater operations.
A tug engaged in a towing operation.
A sailing vessel becalmed.
A power driven vessel with main engine failure.
What is a power-driven vessel?
Any vessel which is self-propelled.
Any vessel propelled by an internal combustion engine.
Any vessel propelled by machinery.
Any vessel other than a vessel propelled by sails.
When is a vessel «UNDERWAY»?
When she is not at anchor or made fast to the shore.
When she is moving through the water.
When the main engine is running.
When she is aground.
Your power-driven vessel is fitted with radar and is underway in poor visibility. At what speed should you proceed?
Sea speed if there are no targets showing on the radar.
Sea speed only if in open waters.
Sea speed with the engines on standby, keeping a close radar watch.
A safe speed.
What is the meaning of the signal flag shown by this icebreaker?
Stop I am ice-bound.
Stop your engines.
Be ready to take (cast off) the towline.
Do not follow me (proceed along the ice channel).
How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor?
By switching all three connections on the motor terminal.
By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal.
The direction of rotation cannot be changed.
By reversing the frequency.
A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show?
100 Amps.
33,3 Amps.
0 Amps.
110 Amps.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.
What type of equipment is this symbol showing?
A DC series motor.
An AC shunt motor.
A DC shunt motor.
A DC combined shunt and series motor.
What type of equipment is represented by this symbol?
A DC series motor.
A DC combined series and shunt motor.
A compound motor.
A shunt motor.
What is the purpose of a «Y/Delta» starter?
To start either a D or an Y connected motor.
To regulate large AC motors.
To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.
To reduce the start time for an AC motor.
What does the symbol in the diagram show?
The windings of a three pole DC shunt motor.
The windings of a three phase AC «Y» connected motor with earthed neutral.
The windings of a three pool DC «Y» connected motor.
The windings of a three phase «D» connected motor.
What does this symbol show?
A three phase «Delta» connected motor.
A three phase DC connected motor.
A three phase «Y» connected motor.
A three phase compound AC motor.
What is the purpose of the circuit shown in the diagram?
To light the lamp when the coil is de-activated.
To operate the relay coil A with buttons 1 and 2.
To prevent relay coil A becoming overheated.
To change direction of the motor connected to coil A.
What may be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor?
At the rated current.
At 5-15 % over the rated current.
At 200 % of the rated current.
At 10 % below the rated current.
A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions would you take?
Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test.
Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger.
Disconnect all cables to the motor.
Use an «AVO» meter instead of a «Megger» for the test.
A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as «flame failure». Indicate the most likely reason.
The fan motor is faulty.
The fuel oil temperature is too high.
The flame cell is dirty.
The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.
An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the «over current» relay. What action would you take?
Increase the current setting on the «over current» relay.
Replace the «over current» relay.
Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.
In the «Ward/Leonard» method of DC motor speed control, how is the motor direction changed?
Reversal of generator polarity.
Reversal of motor field polarity.
By reversal of the rotation of the generator.
By switching the motor armature connections.
A six pole 50 Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm. What will the speed of the motor be at half load?
1 900 rpm.
475 rpm.
1 000 rpm.
975 rpm.
The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following?
Its speed, frequency and number of poles.
Its voltage, current and impedance.
Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.
Its rotor emf, current and power factor.
Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars?
Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor.
Because the bus bars will be short circuited.
Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage.
Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate.
Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.
Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.
Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.
All of these options.
Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by…
current overload.
the wrong types of brushes.
the strength of the field.
any of these.
An earth fault on an electrical motor can be defined as an electrical connection between its wiring and its……….
circuit breaker.
shunt field.
metal frame work.
fuse.
What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator?
To prevent main circuit overload.
To prevent over speeding.
To maintain good load sharing.
To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
What type of instrument can be used to locate an earthed field coil in a synchronous motor?
A voltmeter.
A frequency meter.
A wheatstone bridge.
An ohmeter.
What does the picture show?
Pump motors.
Cylinder heads.
Turbo chargers.
Injectors.
What is the purpose of the parts circled in red?
To assist the motor cooling.
Ventilation slots.
To assist induction currents.
To dispense with the cooling fan.
What is the purpose of the parts circled in red?
To assist the motor cooling.
Ventilation slots.
To assist induction currents.
To dispense with the cooling fan.
What is the purpose of the part circled in red?
To access the windings.
To show the markings of the motor.
The air cooling inlet.
To house the terminals.
What is the purpose of the component number 5?
To ensure smooth speed pick-up.
Motor cooling.
To absorb vibration.
To balance the motor.
What is the purpose of the component number 6?
To ensure correct balancing of the rotor.
To seal the motor internals.
To provide ventilation.
To locate the bearing.
The display trace is caused to rotate in synchronisation with the scanner by a signal from the:
selsyn generator.
duplexer.
heading marker contacts.
scanner motor.
This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively?
The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload.
The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output.
The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur.
The housing will be attacked by cavitation.
What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz)?
About 2 300 RPM.
About 1 500 RPM.
About 1 150 RPM.
About 870 RPM.
A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as «flame failure». Indicate the most likely reason.
The fan motor is faulty.
The fuel oil temperature is too high.
The flame cell is dirty.
The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.
What does the picture show?
Fuel oil pipes.
Fresh water pipes.
Lagged pipes.
Exhaust pipes.
What does the picture show?
A purifier.
A compressor.
A fuel pump.
A generator alternator.
Which of the following is NOT a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre?
A vessel servicing a navigation buoy.
A tanker underway refueling a warship.
A minesweeper engaged in minesweeping operations.
A loaded VLCC navigating in a fairway.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers?
That the settling tanks and the dai’y service tanks are full.
That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.
The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to fast your watch.
The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in addition to the supply capacity?
Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system.
Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off.
Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system.
The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of water is normal.
What is the purpose of the calliper shown in the bottom left corner?
Measuring piston ring gaps.
Measuring fuel pump lifts.
Measuring inside diameters of hydraulic pipes.
Measuring inside diameters or gaps.
What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only?
The engine is overloaded.
The main engine RPM is too high.
Faulty fuel injector.
Cooling water restriction.
Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by…
a defective fuel valve.
a low air pressure.
lubrication low pressure.
not using the auxiliary fan.
What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine?
A faulty fuel valve.
A cracked liner.
Rising scavenging air temperature.
Broken piston ring.
If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen?
Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls.
Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls.
The engine cannot be started again.
The fuel pumps may be clogged.
What is item “M“?
The fuel flow meter.
The by pass valve.
The magnetic filter.
The manometer.
What is the function of valve “PR” in this fuel circuit?
A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop.
A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.
A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature.
A constant pressure regulating valve.
What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use?
Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1 500-3 500 sec redwood 1).
Marine diesel.
Distillate diesel.
Gas oil.
Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer «T»?
Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.
Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.
Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.
None of the other options.
What kind of fuel oil system is shown here?
A heavy fuel oil system.
A blend fuel oil system.
A marine diesel oil system.
A gas oil system.
Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?
The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.
The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.
The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.
All of these options.
Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system?
In units DP and FP.
In unit H.
In unit BU.
In unit BUC.
What are the components marked «F»?
Flow meters.
Fuel filters.
Fuel pumps.
Fuel heaters.
What do you call the tanks in which heavy fuel oil is stored on board?
Heavy fuel oil tanks.
Heavy fuel oil daily tanks.
Heavy fuel oil settling tanks.
Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks.
What do you call the gate valves «MP», «MS», «AP» «AS» located on deck?
Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves.
Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.
Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves.
Heavy fuel oil tank valves.
How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker?
Via suction valve «S», the transfer pump, to discharge valve «D».
Via main bunker valve «BV» to transfer pump «Tp».
Via own pumps «P1» and «P2», the main bunker valve «BV» to valve «D».
Via own pumps «P1» and «P2» to transfer pump «Tp».
If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?
Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.
Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.
Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.
Drain the service tank at shorter intervals.
What is item «F»?
A flow meter.
A flow control device.
A normal mesh filter/strainer.
A fuel shut-off solenoid.
When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0,87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier?
30 degree °С.
40 degree °С.
60 degree °С.
85 degree °С.
What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved?
45 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
45 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
What is shown here?
A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.
A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.
A seawater, basket suction strainer.
A centrifugal filter.
In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used?
Steam valve spindles.
Refrigerating installations.
Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.
Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems.
If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?
Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.
Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.
Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.
Drain the service tank at shorter intervals.
What is item «F»?
A flow meter.
A flow control device.
A normal mesh filter/strainer.
A fuel shut-off solenoid.
When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0,87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier?
30 degree °C.
40 degree °C.
60 degree °C.
85 degree °C.
What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved?
45 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
45 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
What is shown here?
A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.
A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.
A seawater, basket suction strainer.
A centrifugal filter.
In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used?
Steam valve spindles.
Refrigerating installations.
Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.
Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems.
In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter?
In fuel oil piping.
In sea water piping.
In starting air piping.
In bilge piping.
Under OPA 90, the Logistics Section of the incident Command system is divided into the Service Branch and the Support Branch. The Service Branch is responsible for…..
communication, medical and food.
communication and ground support.
supply, facilities and ground support.
electricity, sanitation and bioremediation.
Verification of the Master’s qualifications should be done firstly by…
medical examination.
drug and alcohol test.
interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness.
confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention.
The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with…….. seafarers in accordance with national and international requirements.
safety conscious and diligent.
intelligent and healthy.
drug and alcohol abstaining.
qualified, certified and medically fit.
Concerning the ability of the ship’s personnel to communicate effectively in the execution of their duties related to the SMS, documented evidence must be available……
on the procedures required for effective communication and what verification is carried out on board.
on the educational level of each crewmember.
on the medical examination of each crewmember.
on the ability of each crewmember to read and write in English.
What sort of personal injury cover do «P & I» clubs provide?
They only cover sickness & injury to the ship’s crew. Repatriation & replacement costs are not included.
The clubs generally cover all legal liabilities connected to all personnel for injury & death from non-work related illnesses.
Coverage is provided for medical treatment, repatriation & replacement plus whatever was stipulated in employment contract.
Claims for personal injury must be work related & confined to crew. Civilians injured whilst conducting business on board are not covered.
Where will you find information on sources of radio medical aid?
On the internet.
ALRS vol 1.
In the SOLAS manual.
In the International code of signals.
You have a serious medical injury on board what type of message will you broadcast.
All stations, please observe radio silence on 2182 kHz due to distress traffic.
Pan Pan medico.
Securite.
Mayday.
In the IAMSAR manual, what does the term «MEDEVAC» mean?
Evacuation of a person for medical reasons.
Medical advice system by radio.
MEDiterranean Emergency Visual Airlift Communications system.
Emergency procedure for medical reasons.
If in doubt about any injury, what should you do?
Seek medical advice.
Wait a few days to see if it gets better.
Take time off.
Ask your colleague to look at it.
If, following an accident, you need to request medical help, who, apart from your head office, needs to be notified?
The IMO.
The Flag State.
The ILO.
The P & I Club.
What does medical waste refer to?
All waste generated by a hospital.
Used «sharps» and needles, dressings, etc. from the ship’s hospital.
Soiled linen from the ship’s hospital.
Out of date medicines kept in the ship’s first aid locker.
Which statement does not belong in the list? When an accident occurs, priority is given to:
the safety of the individuals involved and those who may be assisting them.
finding out who caused the incident or accident.
if necessary, stopping the work and making the scene of the accident safe for others to enter.
arranging help and any necessary first aid/medical attention.
Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. What immediate treatment would you give?
Victims should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position.
Victims should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water-except for those with stomach injuries.
Victims should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, then laid flat and given rest.
None; wait until rescue services arrive with specialist personnel trained to deal with such a medical emergency.
The ship’s Loading Manual contains details of the…
number of crew required to work the ship under SOLAS regulations.
out of hours medical contact point.
radio frequencies on which to call the shore contact.
permitted deck loading.
The muster list shows who is the designated GMDSS operator. What do the letters GMDSS stand for?
The GMDSS operator is the person trained to provide General Medical and Maritime Safety Services.
The letters refer to the General Maritime Distress and Survival Services.
The letters refer to the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System.
The letters refer to safety services provided by the rescue organisation.
If someone was injured by a spillage of liquefied gas, where would you look initially for information on how to treat the injury?
Ship Captain’s Medical Guide.
ICS cargo data sheet.
Ship’s emergency instructions.
Ship’s hospital.
Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: THERE IS NOT_______ TIME TO WASTE.
much.
many.
more.
most.
What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water in this fresh water generator?
The vacuum and ejector pump item 13.
The seawater pump supplying the evaporating water item 14.
The ejector pump and seawater pump combined.
The waste heat from the main engine.
What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with Freon liquid or Freon gas and why?
Chromium, it will overheat.
Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the Freon.
Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with Freon.
Copper, it has a harmful effect on the Freon.
What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected to the lubrication oil purifiers have in common?
They all contain extremely dirty oils.
They all contain the same grade of oil.
They all contain in-service oils.
They all contain waste oils.
What method is employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer while maintaining low overall weight?
Steel fins are installed on the generating tubes to increase the effective surface area.
An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat transfer rate.
An external superheated unit is located above the boiler to the gas passages.
Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer.
Under OPA 90 shipboard pollution containers should be capable of recovering at least ……. barrels of oily waste.
55.
20.
30.
12.
According to Annex V of Marpol, no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception?
Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore.
Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore.
Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore.
Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.
Boiler feed water is water ………..
mixed with fuel oil and burnt as waste oil.
taken from the condenser and fed back to the boiler.
used to cool steam back into water.
used to cool steam turbines.
What does the word «bilge» mean?
Loose talk or gossip.
Waste from the galley.
The sewage treatment tank.
The lowest part of the inside of the ship.
Which of the following will help control flies onboard?
Keeping waste bins covered.
Fly spray.
Fly papers.
Swatting them with a rolled-up newspaper.
When preparing foods which of these is important?
Using impervious chopping surfaces.
Using wooden boards.
Having open waste bins close to hand.
Keeping whole meals ready to eat.
As part of your cleaning duties you may have to clean the offices of senior officers onboard, out of the following list which items should NOT be touched or cleaned?
Any computer equipment and personal papers.
Waste paper bins and top of cupboards.
Newspapers and desktops.
Chairs and carpets.
Practicing safe hygiene is important. Which of these contributes most to safe hygiene?
Washing hands and equipment between tasks.
Keeping whole meals ready to eat.
Having open waste bins close to hand.
Using wooden boards.
Which of the following must be provided galley wash hand basin?
Hot water.
A mirror.
A waste bin.
A plug.
Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by …
draining it into the bilges.
discharging it into the dockside oil waste station.
pumping it over the side.
dumping it into a fuel oil tank.
Which of these is important in kitchens when you are preparing food?
Keep waste bins covered and away from the food.
Having open waste bins close to hand.
Using wooden boards.
Keeping whole meals ready to eat.
Which of the following are most important in disposing of waste?
Wash waste bins after emptying.
Store packaging in the open air.
Disinfect bins daily.
Store food waste off the floor.
Bone joints should not be too big because …
It is difficult to cook the center properly.
They take too long to cook.
They take too long to reheat.
They are difficult to carve without waste.
Should a waste heat boiler lose its water level whilst operating, the best procedure would be to …
allow the boiler to run «dry» for a short period.
shut down the boiler immediately to avoid damage.
by-pass the exhaust gases.
slow down the engine, lowering the exhaust temperature.
Where can a ship dispose of waste plastic at sea?
Anywhere outside the 3 mile limit.
Outside special areas.
Beyond 25 miles offshore.
Disposal of plastics is not allowed anywhere at sea.
To prepare food safely, which of these is important?
Keeping raw and cooked foods separate.
Keeping whole meals ready to eat.
Using wooden boards.
Having open waste bins close to hand.
What does medical waste refer to?
All waste generated by a hospital.
Used «sharps» and needles, dressings, etc. from the ship’s hospital.
Soiled linen from the ship’s hospital.
Out of date medicines kept in the ship’s first aid locker.
Which MARPOL Annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
Annex I.
Annex II.
Annex IV.
Annex V.
If the ship needs to dispose of cargo associated waste such as dunnage or pallets while at sea, how far must it be from land?
3 miles.
12 miles.
15 miles.
25 miles.
Which of the sources listed is not one that is a concern in terms of oily water pollution?
A hose bursting.
Condensation from the charge air cooler.
Galley wastes.
A flange leaking during bunkering.
Spontaneous combustion may occur when:
a person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall asleep.
sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying about on deck.
incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler.
dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish, especially if contaminated by oil, are left lying about.
The machinery spaces contain all the elements needed to start a fire and sustain it. What are these elements?
Fuel, water and flame.
Air, oily rags and heat.
Heat, air and fuel.
Fuel, air and waste bins.
Which of the types of garbage listed is not biodegradable?
Food wastes.
Paper.
Disposable plastic cups.
Wood.
How much waste does the average cargo ship generate each year?
8 tonnes.
180 tonnes.
80 tonnes.
40 tonnes.
What is the first duty of an emergency party’s group leader?
Waste no time and tackle the emergency. For instance in case of fire, extinguish it, then report to the bridge.
To muster his/her group at the prearranged muster station and check that all are safe, and to report.
Proceed straight to the problem site and await the arrival of his/her emergency party.
Check the emergency equipment under his/her control.
It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding responsibility and authority as required ……
by the International Association of Classification Societies.
by the Company’s Main Policy Objective.
by the SOLAS Convention.
by the Shipowner’s Trust Fund.
What does «SOLAS» stand for?
Safe official lifeboat appliance signals.
Save our lives and ship.
Safety of life at sea.
Safe orderly lifesaving appliance system.
SOLAS 1974 requires the oxygen content in the Inert Gas Main to be not more than ……. by volume.
8 %.
4 %.
6 %.
5 %.
Whilst discharging cargo, if the oxygen content within the inert gas main is above the SOLAS 1974 recommendations and the Engine Room inform you that they cannot reduce it, what would your actions be?
Call the master and continue with cargo operations.
Stop all cargo operations.
Call the chief engineer and continue with cargo operations.
Continue with cargo operations.
In addition to a fire suit, a fireman’s outfit also comprises breathing apparatus and a fireproof lifeline. According to SOLAS – how many such sets of fireman’s outfit are required to be carried by all ships?
At least one.
At least two.
At least three.
As required by the ship’s administration.
According to SOLAS – for carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems in machinery spaces the fixed piping system shall be such that ….
100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 2 minutes.
85 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 2 minutes.
100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 3 minutes.
70 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 2 minutes.
According to SOLAS – sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be used as fire pumps provided ….
they are not normally used for pumping oils.
they are ready for use as a fire pump at any time.
they can be started from a position outside the engine room.
they are fitted with an automatic start connected to the fire alarm.
Which of these has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?
Launching & recovery of a survival craft.
Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned.
Manoeuvering the lifeboat in the water.
Which of these requirements, regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival craft, corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival craft during abandonment.
Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances that are capable of launching and recovering the lifeboat.
Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times can observe the survival craft and lifeboat.
Different types of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival craft on board the ship.
What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board?
The SOLAS stretcher.
The canvas pole stretcher.
The Hart Imco stretcher.
The Neil Robertson stretcher.
Which one of the following statements regarding life-buoys does not correspond to present SOLAS regulations?
All lifebuoys shall be placed in a holder with a quick release arrangement.
At least one lifebuoy on each side of the ship shall be fitted with a buoyant lifeline.
Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be fitted with a buoyant light.
At least one lifebuoy shall be placed within the vicinity of the stem.
Which of these requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in harbour.
Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and manoeuvered in the water at least once every three months.
For ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manoeuvered in water at least every six months.
All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
Which of these requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
If fitted with light or smoke signal, it must have a mass less than 4 kgs.
It must have a mass greater than 2,5 kgs.
It must be constructed of inherently buoyant material.
It must have sufficient air.
Which of these requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
The release mechanism shall be of an automatic type approved by the Flag State Administration.
Rapid recovery shall be possible with the boat’s full complement of persons and equipment.
Embarkation and launching arrangements shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in less than 5 minutes.
Launching shall be possible with a headway speed of up to 5 knots in heavy weather.
Cargo pump rooms shall be provided with a fixed fire extinguishing system. Which of the following systems is not in accordance with the present SOLAS regulations?
Fixed gas fire extinguishing system.
Fixed powder fire extinguishing system.
High expansion foam extinguishing system.
Water spraying extinguishing system.
According to SOLAS – the number and position of hydrants shall be such that ….
at least three jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which from a single length of hose may reach any part of the ship.
at least two jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which, from a single length of hose, may reach any part of the ship.
at least one jet of water shall reach any part of the ship that is normally accessible by the crew.
at least two jets of water shall reach any part of the ship.
What language should be used in the SOLAS training manual?
English.
A common language understood by the crew.
French.
Spanish.
Where must records of emergency and abandon ship drills be kept?
In the Official log book.
In the Safety Officers log.
In the Deck log.
In the SOLAS manual.
In vessels over 500 grt where must there be a copy of the SOLAS training manual …
On the bridge.
With the safety officer.
In the crew mess/recreation room.
At the gangway.
Where will you find information on sources of radio medical aid.
On the internet.
ALPS vol 1.
In the SOLAS manual.
In the International code of signals.
You have a fire onboard your vessel in port – where will you find updated stability information to give to shore authorities?
In the Fire wallet.
In the SOLAS manual.
In the vessels stability booklet.
From the OOW.
You have a fire onboard in port – how is stability information passed on to the fire services?
Verbally by the chief Officer.
It is contained in the vessels SOLAS manual.
Verbally by the OOW.
It is contained in the fire wallet.
In the ISM Code the reference to «Convention» means:
SOLAS Convention.
MARPOL Convention.
LOADLIME Convention.
All of these options.
What is the primary legislation on which all other legislation concerning the operation of the ISM Code is based?
SOLAS Chapter IX – Management for the Safe Operation of Ships.
IMO Resolution A 741 (18) – International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention.
IMO Resolution A 739 (18) – Guidelines for the Authorisation of Organisations acting on behalf of Administrations.
IMO Resolution A 913 (22) – Guidelines for the Implementation of the ISM Code by Administrations.
Where would you expect to find information about pilot transfer arrangements for your ship?
The ISM Code.
The ship’s manuals.
SOLAS.
The Master’s standing orders.
All fire fighting features are there to protect the vessel and its crew. What in your view is the most important measure one can take to maintain their effectiveness?
Overhaul of the fire fighting equipment each time the vessel is in dry dock.
Appointing a safety officer with responsibility for maintenance and testing.
Maintaining the validity of the vessel’s Safety Management Certificate as required under the SOLAS regulations.
Regular inspection, maintenance and testing.
Which of the international regulations and industry standards listed is not part of the basis for SIRE inspections?
SOLAS.
STCW.
MARPOL.
SIGTTO.
What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
A well constructed ship which has been equipped with fire fighting equipment prescribed by the SOLAS Convention.
An effectively trained emergency party led by an experienced senior officer with the necessary STCW Advanced Fire Fighting certificate.
A small close-knit group working together as a team effective leadership & understanding the importance of: Coordination, Communication & Control.
An experienced Master who holds valid Advanced Fire Fighting course certificates.
What is the SOLAS Training Manual?
A manual containing instructions to watchkeepers for the maintenance of correct navigation and engine room procedures.
Attaining manual used on board passenger ships by the hotel staff.
A manual containing instructions and information on the life-saving appliances provided, and on the best method of survival.
A manual giving details to newly joined crewmembers about embarkation arrangements on Ro-Ro ferries.
What is the SOLAS Convention?
The «Voluntary Code for Safety Of Life At Sea».
The «International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea».
The «Convention on Life Saving Appliances».
The «International Life Saving Appliance Code».
Why is it important for the OOW to move around the bridge?
To be able to view all the instruments on the bridge.
To be able to see what the lookout is doing.
To be able to check the fire alarm system frequently.
To be able to obtain a clear view of the surrounding area.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there?
That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.
The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle valves are closed.
That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles are closed.
That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off.
What does the picture show?
Lifeboat fire extinguishers.
Enclosed lifeboat emergency air supply.
Breathing apparatus air tanks.
СO2 supply in case of fire.
What does the picture show?
Fire hoses drying after use.
Canvas covers.
A ship’s stretcher.
Air vent covers drying.
What is the primary cause of scavenge air space fires?
Blow-by due to broken piston rings.
Insufficient cylinder lubrication.
Faulty injectors.
Excessive cylinder lubrication.
Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment?
Cargo shifting, collision, explosion.
Fire, flooding, grounding.
Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing.
Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering.
In addition to routine drills prescribed in International and National regulations, drills should also include…..
emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboard situations.
fire drills in port.
boat drills at sea.
diving exercises under the ship.
Voltage form number? represents the output from a DIAC in a DIAC/TRIAC voltage regulator. What is the voltage used for?
To close the TRIAC.
To fire a light diode.
To fire the TRIAC.
To reverse the TRIAC voltage.
If the stand-by indicating light is energised on the control panel of this boiler burner what does it indicate?
That the boiler is ready to be fired and no alarm conditions exist.
That an alarm condition exists.
That the pilot burner is in operation.
That the fuel is circulating and at the temperature ready to fire.
What is the function of the «Boiler Firing Switch» fitted on the control panel of this boiler burner?
To isolate the electric power to the control panel.
To open the fuel valve to the burner.
To change from stand-by to firing mode and fire-up the boiler.
To fire the boiler on manual in emergency.
The firing or the flame indicating light on the control panel of this boiler burner control panel shows that ….
the pilot burner has fired.
ignition is taking place.
fuel is admitted to the main burner.
the boiler is operating normally.
The flame failure lamp on the control panel of this boiler burner will illuminate when …
the pilot burner fails to fire the main burner.
the flame is being smothered by water in the fuel.
the flame is dark due to incorrect fuel/air ratio.
Any of these faults.
If you fire the boiler and it misfires repeatedly, indicating flame failure, what are you going to check first?
The boiler water level is at the correct level.
The fuel oil pressure and temperature are correct.
The photocell is clean in sight glass «G».
The ignitor rods, clean the ignitor tips if necessary.
If the auxiliary seawater pump «AS» fails, which pump should be used to cool the condensers?
Fire Pump «FP».
General Service Pump «GSP».
Hydrophore Pump «HP».
Wain Sea Water Pump(s) «MS».
If the reefer condenser pump «PP» fails, which pump would you use to supply cooling water to these reefer condensers?
Fire Pump «FP».
General Service Pump «GSP».
Auxiliary SW PUMP «AS».
Any of these pumps may be used.
If the auxiliary condenser is not in use for any operation at sea, which pump should be used to cool the atmospheric and dumping condensers?
The General Service Pump «GSP».
The Fire Pump «FP».
The Reefer Condenser pump «PP».
By the Main Seawater Pump «MS».
Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump would be the Fire and Ballast Pump?
410 m3/hour x 20 metres.
110/410 m3/hour х 70/35 metres.
140 m3/hour 30 metres.
40 m3/hour х 55 metres.
What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code?
A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.
A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge of oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the ship.
A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is diminished.
A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of the ship or personnel or to the environment.
What method is employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer while maintaining low overall weight?
Steel fins are installed on the generating tubes to increase the effective surface area.
An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat transfer rate.
An external superheated unit is located above the boiler in the gas passages.
Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer.
What is the most aspect of communication with the deck department?
Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.
Executing of orders from the bridge.
Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.
Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.
When taking over the watch as duty engineer, what would you check first, before inspecting the plant condition?
The engine room bilges.
The log book entries from the previous watch.
The fire alarm monitoring equipment.
The Chief Engineer’s standing orders and special instructions.
Whilst taking over of the watch, besides verifying standing orders and the actual condition of the plant, tank levels and operations, what other important matter should you verify?
That the bilges of all wells pumped.
What is the firefighting equipment in state of readiness.
If any work is being performed in the engine room.
Where are the leakages in pipes, tanks and equipment.
If you are welding in the workshop, you must ensure in advance that the bridge is told and that …..
the Chief Engineer is informed as well.
the emergency fire pump is started.
the fire extinguishers of the engine room platform are not expired.
the fire alarm for the workshop platform is switched off.
Under OPA 90, a «Worst Case Scenario» includes the discharge of the vessel’s entire cargo during ….
fire or explosion.
the absence of the Master.
grounding.
adverse weather.
A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as «flame failure». Indicate the most likely reason.
The fan motor is faulty.
The fuel oil temperature is too high.
The flame cell is dirty.
The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers?
That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.
That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.
The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch.
The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.
On board your vessel the main engine consumes hourly 1 375 litres HFO, the boiler 560 litres per hour and the auxiliary diesel 166 litres per hour. At what throughput shall you feed the HFO purifier?
3 700 litres/hour.
3 200 litres/hour.
2 600 litres/hour.
2 350 litres/hour.
What type of boilers are fitted (one only shown) to feed this turbine installation?
Scotch type boilers.
Water tube boilers.
Cochran type boilers.
Exhaust dissipation boilers.
Of what is this finned pipe a part?
Of an exhaust gas boiler steam generator.
Of an exhaust gas boiler economiser.
Of an exhaust gas boiler superheater.
Of any of the other options.
After some time, scale build-up is unavoidable in steam generating coils. How is it removed?
By cleaning with boiler tube brushes.
In the drydock by chemical engineers.
By the circulation of chemicals by small pump in port.
By flushing with the boiler water circulation pump.
How is this finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler fastened in the boiler wall?
It is caulked.
With a screwed coupling.
It is expanded.
It is welded.
How is the soot which will accumulate between the finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler removed?
By sand blasting in the drydock.
By high pressure water jet washing at 3 000 psi.
By chemical cleaning with pump in port.
Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port.
What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating unit?
Plug the pipe.
Plug the section/bank.
Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.
Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.
By which unit is the combustion intensity in this boiler controlled?
By pressostat controlled fuel admission solenoids.
By the regulating valve «R».
By the compound regulator.
By the position of the air flap.
What kind of burner would be fitted to this boiler?
A high speed jet burner.
A rotating cup burner.
A steam assisted burner.
A rotating nozzle burner.
What is the purpose of «S» fitted in the fuel admission line to the rotating cup burner of this boiler?
Emergency stop/Boiler failure cutout for any reason.
Fuel admission by operation/Fuel block by stop/emergency.
Keeps fuel to burner open in normal firing mode via photocell.
All of these options.
What is the main purpose of the photocell «P» fitted in the burner front casing?
To energise the fuel solenoid «S» when combustion is satisfactory.
To cut-out the boiler if water level is low.
To maintain the correct fuel/air ratio.
To detect firing of the pilot burner «PB».
If the stand-by indicating light is energised on the control panel of this boiler burner, what does it indicate?
That the boiler is ready to be fired and no alarm conditions exist.
That an alarm condition exists.
That the pilot burner is in operation.
That the fuel is circulating and at the temperature ready to fire.
What is happening when the «PURGING» indicating light is illuminated on the control panel of the boiler burner?
Purging air in boiler with flap «F» full open, solenoid «S» and «PB» closed.
Pump «P» is purging the fuel over pressure valve «R».
Both air and fuel are admitted over «F» and «S», ignition will start.
The boiler starts firing and the photocell will activate.
What burner equipment item operating when the ignition indication light is illuminated on this boiler’s control panel?
The fuel solenoid «S».
The recirculating valve «R».
The compound regulator «CR».
The pilot burner «PB».
The firing or the flame indicating light on the control panel of this boiler burner control panel shows that ……….
the pilot burner has fired.
ignition is taking place.
fuel is admitted to the main burner.
the boiler is operating normally.
The flame failure lamp on the control panel of this boiler burner will illuminate when ……………
the pilot burner fails to fire the main burner.
the flame is being smothered by water in the fuel.
the flame is dark due to incorrect fuel/air ratio.
Any of these faults.
What is the purpose of the restart button which you will find fitted to the control panel of this boiler’s burner?
To be pressed after low water cut-out.
To be pressed after restarting the feedwater pump.
To be pressed after flame failure.
To be pressed after the forced draught fan trips.
Which of the following conditions is a lock-out condition which will consequently illuminate the lock-out indicating lamp fitted to the control panel of the boiler burner light up?
Burner not correctly secured in position.
Low fuel oil pressure.
Low water level.
Any of these faults.
If you fire the boiler and it misfires repeatedly, indicating flame failure, what are you going to check first?
The boiler water level is at the correct level.
The fuel oil pressure and temperature are correct.
The photocell is clean in sight glass «G».
The ignitor rods, clean the ignitor tips if necessary.
What do you think should be the temperature on thermometer «T» during normal operation of this boiler?
45 to 50 degree °C.
60 to 65 degree °C.
90 to 100 degree °C.
125 to 130 degree °C.
What is the function of the «Boiler Firing Switch» fitted on the control panel of this boiler burner?
To isolate the electric power to the control panel.
To open the fuel valve to the burner.
To change from stand-by to firing mode and fire-up the boiler.
To fire the boiler on manual in emergency.
Prior to carrying out any work on boiler burners, you should isolate them. What is understood by this?
You must ensure that all electrical power supplies are shut off.
You must ensure that all fuel line valves are shut and fuel drained.
You must ensure that funnel uptake flap is closed.
All of these options.
What is this funnel like pipe fitted below the evaporating surface of the boiler water?
A feedwater funnel.
A blow down funnel.
A boiler water sample drain funnel.
A skimming plate.
How do you carry out skimming operations on the boiler water?
Blow the water down until steam gushes out.
Slowly with feedwater pumps stopped.
Four to five repeated blows of about 5 seconds each.
When the boiler steam pressure has been reduced to atmospheric pressure.
In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power?
In the main engine.
In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5).
In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1).
In the exhaust gas boiler.
On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted?
On the exhaust gas boiler.
On the turbo blower.
On the scavenge air blower.
On the scavenge air manifold.
Why is it important that the exhaust gas boiler bypass flap to exhaust is operated when the main engine is running at reduced or manoeuvring speed on Heavy Fuel Oil?
To ensure proper firing of the engine.
To ensure starting of the engine.
To avoid backpressure on the engine at low speed.
To avoid corrosion in the exhaust gas boiler.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the operational boilers when the exhaust gas boiler alone is providing the heat supply?
The soot blowers, the economiser and the boiler furnace.
The boiler water circulating pumps, the feedwater pumps and the feedwater temperature.
The boiler water level, the steam pressure and the exhaust gas change over flap position or coil percentage used.
The economiser and superheater temperatures and the steam pressure.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers?
That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.
That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.
The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch.
The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.
What is part number 3?
The purifier.
The primary pump.
The clarifier.
The suction filter.
Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers?
1.
2.
Neither.
Both 1 and 2.
If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?
Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.
Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.
Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.
Drain the service tank at shorter intervals.
What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P?
A centrifugal pump.
A gear pump or worm pump.
A piston pump.
A vane pump.
How is pump «P» driven from the purifier?
By V-belt.
By electric motor.
By shaft drive with replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase.
By direct gear drive from the purifier crankcase.
When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0,87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier?
30 degree °C.
40 degree °C.
60 degree °C.
85 degree °C.
What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved?
45 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
45 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
On board your vessel the main engine consumes hourly 1,375 litres HFO, the boiler 560 litres per hour and the auxiliary diesel 166 litres per hour. At what throughput shall you feed the HFO purifier?
3 700 litres/hour.
3 200 litres/hour.
2 600 litres/hour.
2 350 litres/hour.
What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected to the lubrication oil purifiers have in common?
They all contain extremely dirty oils.
They all contain the same grade of oil.
They all contain in-service oils.
They all contain waste oils.
What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin)?
70 degree °C.
75 degree °C.
85 degree °C.
95 degree °C.
Suppose the crankcase oil system contains 14 000 litres of oil and the capacity of the Lubrication Oil purifier is 2 500 litres/hour maximum, what throughput should be maintained?
2 300-2 400 litres per hour.
1 950-2 100 litres per hour.
1 680-1 850 litres per hour.
1 350-1 450 litres per hour.
Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier N° 2 is running MELO, sump tank to MELO sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier N° 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible?
Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank.
M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil Tank.
M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Lub. Oil sump Tank.
M.E. Lub Oil sump Tank to Dirty Oil Tank.
Where and how would you take a sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump tank?
At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump.
From the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps.
After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running.
In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank.
When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by ….. to the purifier.
a plate clutch.
a magnetic coupling.
a centrifugal clutch.
a rotating coupling.
What is the tool shown upper right?
A bearing cap-wrench.
A purifier assembly wrench.
An orifice removal wrench.
A hydrant wrench.
The exhaust steam line of one of the consumers shown in this drawing will not return via the atmospheric condenser but direct via a water trap to the hotwell. Which one?
Viscorator.
Purifiers.
M.E. heating.
Laundry.
If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect?
Water will discharge with the clean oil.
Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier.
The purifier will overflow oil on the water side.
The high temperature alarm will activate.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier?
Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check the overflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure.
Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, check whether the alarm is activated.
Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the back pressure, the bearing temperatures.
Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperature and the back pressure.
How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled?
They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier.
They are refilled once per day.
They are refilled only when required.
They are refilled twice a week.
If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect?
Water will discharge with the clean oil.
Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier.
The purifier will overflow oil on the water side.
The high temperature alarm will activate.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier?
Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check the overflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure.
Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, check whether the alarm is activated.
Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the back pressure, the bearing temperatures.
Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperature and the back pressure.
How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled?
They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier.
They are refilled once per day.
They are refilled only when required.
They are refilled twice a week.
What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing?
A fuel oil transfer pump.
A fuel oil booster pump.
A fuel oil ball filter.
A fuel oil purifier.
For ships not fitted with a sludge burning incinerator, the sludge tank capacity shall be directly proportional to ….
the size of the vessel.
the total horse power (or kWatt) generated in the engine room.
the amount of fuel purified for daily consumption times the maximum period between voyage ports.
the number of purifiers fitted on board times the maximum range of the ship.
If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change the …
purifier ball bearings.
friction pad linings.
gravity disc.
О-rings and seal set of the bowl.
The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is …
the wrong gravity disc.
dirt between purifier plates.
water seal broken.
ball bearings worn out.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there?
That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.
The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle valves are closed.
That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles are closed.
That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off.
What is shown top left?
An overhead bulkhead eye.
A strop connection.
A loop welding.
A chainblock clamp.
What is the tool shown top left called and by whom is it mostly used?
Welding rod pliers/fitters and welders.
Manometer curved pliers/engineers.
Instrument long nose pliers/Automation and control engineers.
Curved long nose pliers/Electricians.
If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylene pressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to what should they be connected?
The oxygen and acetylene bottles.
Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.
Gas bottles depending the material to weld.
Safety valves.
When igniting the welding torch, how would you proceed?
Open acetylene, ignite, than adjust flame with oxygen.
Open oxygen and acetylene, than ignite.
Open acetylene, ignite, open oxygen than adjust flame.
Ignite whilst controlling acetylene, open oxygen, adjust flame.
What is the gas welding equipment shown right side?
A heavy duty welding torch.
A blow-by torch.
A cutting torch.
An illumination torch.
If you are an engine room rating, what basic technical knowledge must you possess as far as tools and equipment are concerned?
Be able to identify and select the proper tool for each job.
Be able to operate the gas welding equipment.
Be able to operate the drilling machine.
Be able to operate the milling machine.
If you are welding in the workshop, you must ensure in advance that the bridge is told and that…
the Chief Engineer is informed as well.
the emergency fire pump is started.
the fire extinguishers of the engine room platform are not expired.
the fire alarm for the workshop platform is switched off.
A diesel engine block is made of ……… and does not permit welding.
stainless steel.
mild steel.
cast iron.
tempered steel.
Lapping a valve and valve seat together means …………..
adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves.
grinding the valve against the valve seat to obtain a uniform sealing surface.
machining the valve in a lathe.
repairing by welding.
What is «hot work»?
Welding or cutting with a torch.
When a tank temperature goes above 45 degrees °C or 113 degrees F.
When a work area is so hot that an air blower is needed.
Work which is so strenuous that it becomes dangerous.
How should gas bottles be stored?
Under the forecastle.
In a refrigerated room.
In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
In the engine room workshop close to welding equipment.
If welding repairs are being carried out in the workshop, you must inform in advance the duty deck and engineer officers, and that …
a «permit to work» form is completed and the chief engineer informed.
the fire team is alerted and standing-by.
the safety officer is told and he checks all safety aspects.
a «permit to work» form is completed and the workshop fire alarm is switched off.
You are working close to someone who is welding. You should avoid …
touching the person.
looking at the welding arc.
touching any metal surface.
using any electric tools.
What is «hot work»?
Welding or cutting with a torch.
When a tank temperature goes above 45 °C.
When a work area is so hot that an air blower is needed.
Work which is so strenuous that it becomes dangerous.
What would be an acceptable repair for a cracked main engine crankcase?
Electric arc welding of the crack.
Welding a doubling plate in place over the crack.
Using a cold, metal stitch repair of the crack.
Low temperature brazing of the crack.
What, if any precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity of open, but empty, hatches?
No special precaution are necessary when welding in the vicinity of empty hatches as long as loading operations have not started.
Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down hatches or ventilators. Combustible materials should be moved to a safe distance.
Issue a «cold work» permit.
Obtain permission from the harbour authorities and company head office.
The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc welding should be taken by:
the deck officer of the watch.
the Master.
the senior officer in charge.
the Superintendent.
Normally, welding should only be undertaken when:
a fire watch is standing by.
the ship is in port.
the office has granted permission to do so.
the Chief Engineer is present.
Which item does NOT belong? Special care should be taken when welding and flame cutting in enclosed spaces to:
provide adequate ventilation.
be the subject of a «permit to work» system.
be aware that harmful fumes can be produced.
ensure the use of inert gas.
A method of joining two plastics together is by solvent welding. What is this process?
Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces.
Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined.
A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join.
A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join.
Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding in the workshop how is welding rendered safe?
By respirator.
By extraction.
By ventilation.
By extractor welding gun.
When gas welding, which is the most likely cause of a serious accident?
Touching hot metal.
Flying sparks.
Leaving torch on floor.
Not extinguishing when finished.
When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used?
Leather gloves Leather apron Safety boots Boiler suit Baseball cap.
Leather gloves Boiler suit Safety boots Welding helmet Leather apron.
Leather gloves Leather apron Welding helmet Safety Boots Baseball cap.
Leather gloves Leather apron Boilersuit Breathing apparatus Rubber soled boots.
An acetylene welding cylinder is packed with charcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar by how many times will it absorb its own volume?
275 times.
325 times.
375 times.
425 times.
Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process, checking for:
Fusion Undercutting Surface pin holes Excessive spatter.
Fusion Undercutting Slag inclusion Excessive spatter.
Slag inclusion Fusion Undercutting Contour.
Undercutting Surface pin holes Fusion Continuous weld.
Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones. When welding, for example, the heat is transferred directly through the metal. What is this process is known as?
Convection.
Radiation.
Conduction.
Spot.
In electric arc welding, what purpose does the electrode coating serve?
It provides a gas shield Reduces splatter Gives a stable arc Controls the metallurgical properties.
Gives a variable arc Reduces splatter Tolerates poor welding Assists multi-runs.
Allows damp electrodes to be used Gives a stable arc Reduces slag inclusion Reduces Porosity.
Controls the metallurgical properties Assists penetration Tolerates poor welding Reduces splatter.
When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used?
Leather gloves Leather apron Safety boots Boiler suit Baseball cap.
Leather gloves Boiler suit Safety boots Welding helmet Leather apron.
Leather gloves Leather apron Welding helmet Safety Boots Baseball cap.
Leather gloves Leather apron Boiler suit Breathing apparatus Rubber soled boots.
An acetylene welding cylinder is packed with charcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar by how many times will it absorb its own volume?
275 times.
325 times.
375 times.
425 times.
Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process, checking for:
Fusion Undercutting Surface pin holes Excessive spatter.
Fusion Undercutting Slag inclusion Excessive spatter.
Slag inclusion Fusion Undercutting Contour.
Undercutting Surface pin holes Fusion Continuous weld.
Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones. When welding, for example, the heat is transferred directly through the metal. What is this process is known as?
Convection.
Radiation.
Conduction.
Spot.
In electric arc welding, what purpose does the electrode coating serve?
It provides a gas shield Reduces splatter Gives a stable arc Controls the metallurgical properties.
Gives a variable arc Reduces splatter Tolerates poor welding Assists multi-runs.
Allows damp electrodes to be used Gives a stable arc Reduces slag inclusion Reduces Porosity.
Controls the metallurgical properties Assists penetration Tolerates poor welding Reduces splatter.
Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosity in a welded joint?
Welding current too low. Speed of travel too fast. Incorrect electrode manipulation Dirty parent metal.
Damp electrode coating. Damaged electrode coating. Too long an arc. Incorrect starting.
Wrong electrode angle. Incorrect joint set up. Speed of travel too fast. Welding current too low.
Welding current too high. Incorrect root gap. Incorrect electrode size. Dirty parent metal.
Which of these gases would carry this sign?
Hydrogen.
Acetylene.
Propane.
Argon.
What gases are present in the modern incandescent lamp?
Vacuum.
Argon and Nitrogen.
Argon and neon.
Neon and Nitrogen.
The term PADDING means protecting cargo with a blanket of inert gas, such as …
nitrogen.
oxygen.
argon.
carbon dioxide.
Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon and a non-consumable electrode?
Gas metal arc.
Metal inert gas.
Manual metal arc.
Tungsten inert gas.
Why is there an indicating flap «IF» (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling water buffer tank?
To indicate if the pump is running.
To indicate that the engine is running.
To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.
To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
What type of pump is the pump «P»?
A centrifugal pump.
A piston pump.
A gear or worm wheel pump.
A vane pump.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stem tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
What is the primary cause of scavenge air space fires?
Blow-by due to broken piston rings.
Insufficient cylinder lubrication.
Faulty injectors.
Excessive cylinder lubrication.
What is the purpose of the calliper shown in the bottom left corner?
Measuring piston ring gaps.
Measuring fuel pump lifts.
Measuring inside diameters of hydraulic pipes.
Measuring inside diameters or gaps.
What is part number 3?
The air chamber.
The combustion center.
The combustion chamber.
The piston glider.
Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by …
a piston ring failure.
a burnt piston top.
a leaking exhaust valve.
All of the other options.
What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system?
The expansion tank.
The construction of the buffer tank.
The air cushion in the buffer tank.
The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps.
When does the exhaust valve «EV» open?
When the piston is at bottom dead point.
When the piston moves upward.
At the end of the working stroke.
None of the other options.
What is the component marked «P»?
The fresh water pump.
The lub oil pump.
The piston cooling pump.
The sea water pump.
What is the function of item «PC»?
Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid.
Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle.
Pressure Container activating automatic pressure release valve.
Piston Controller activating compressor piston movement.
In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assembly fitted?
Refrigeration compressor.
CO2 compressor.
Service air compressor.
Oil-free instrument air compressor.
What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly?
To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.
To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.
As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.
All of these options.
What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump «P»?
A centrifugal pump.
A gear pump or worm pump.
A piston pump.
A vane pump.
What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank?
To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains.
To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intended for purification.
To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils.
To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes.
What type of pump would normally be fitted at position «P»?
A piston pump.
A centrifugal pump.
A vane pump.
A gear or screw displacement pump.
What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here?
A gear pump.
A piston pump.
A vane pump.
A worm wheel pump.
What kind of tool is shown top left and for what is it used?
A ratchet spanner/Used on main engine piston crowns.
A torque spanner/Used on foundation bolts.
A forged torque spanner/Used to hammer nuts.
A forged ring spanner/Used to be hammered by a sledgehammer.
In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers?
They need more cooling water.
The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.
The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have bypass valves fitted.
For ease of installation.
What kind of material is NEVER used for the pistons of a refrigeration compressor?
Cast Iron.
Light alloy.
Perlite steel.
Pure aluminium.
A cylinder of a large diesel engine is 900 mm in diameter and the firing pressure is 80 bar. What is the force exerted on the piston at this firing pressure?
508,680 kg.
635,850 kg.
487,334 kg.
299,074 kg.
What type of engine is shown here?
A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging.
A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging.
A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging.
A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging.
A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts:
piston body, piston flange, piston crown.
piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece.
piston crown, piston body, piston rings.
piston, piston rings, telescopic piping.
What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moves in order to secure tightness?
The piston underside valves.
The scavenging air valve box.
The piston rod stuffing box.
The crankcase sealing assembly.
During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine’s piston are sliding up and down in to ….
the crankcase cooling space.
compressed air vessels.
piston cooling water piping.
telescopic buffer vessels.
What type of diesel engine is shown here?
A four stroke supercharged engine.
A four stroke trunk type engine.
A two stroke crosshead type engine.
A two stroke trunk-piston type engine.
How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and spring) ensured in starting air valves of this type?
Teflon seals are fitted.
O-ring seals are fitted.
Piston rings are fitted.
Labyrinth seals are fitted.
How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil?
Direct from the lub oil main line.
From the camshaft lub oil line.
Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.
Independently.
How is the gear train lubricated on this Diesel engine?
Via the crankshaft.
Via the camshaft system.
By its own independent lub oil circuit.
Direct from the common lub oil circuit.
How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Diesel engine?
Via the crankshaft.
Via the camshaft.
Direct via the main lub oil line.
By its own independent supply system.
All engine crankcase explosion investigations have shown only one thing in common; this is …
the build up of oil vapour.
excessively high lubricating oil temperature.
evidence of a hot spot.
a wiped crankshaft bearing.
On a small diesel engine how would pump «P» be driven?
By «V» belt from the crankshaft.
By an electric motor.
By gears driven from the crankshaft.
By gear drive from the main output shaft.
When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for example +4, this means that …
the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.
the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.
the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm.
the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other.
What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings?
Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine.
Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.
Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak.
Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment.
In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard and during the taking of crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown?
Between TP and P.
Between P and S.
Between S and TS.
Between TS and TP.
What do you call the gauge that measures the concentric position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft in its bearing?
A bridge gauge.
A slip gauge.
A shafting gauge.
A poker gauge.
Crankshaft distortions need to be measured and are referred to as …………
crankshaft distortion readings.
crankshaft deflection measurements.
crankshaft misalignment calibrations.
Any of these answers.
In a trunk type piston, the gudgeon pin is subject to two forces. What are these forces?
Exhaust pressure and combustion force.
Linear and rotating motion.
Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation.
Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque.
In an auxiliary diesel engine the connecting rod would join which of the following items?
Piston and crosshead bearing.
Crankshaft and crosshead bearing.
Camshaft and exhaust valve.
Piston and crankshaft.
In auxiliary diesel engines timing of the exhaust valve opening and closing is accomplished by …
the crankshaft.
the pushrods.
the camshaft.
the pistons.
Turbocharging an engine is the operation providing extra intake air to the engine using which of the following?
A compressor driven from the crankshaft.
An electrically driven air compressor.
A compressor driven by an exhaust gas powered turbine.
A steam driven turbine.
The connecting rod on a cross-head diesel engine is attached to which of the following?
Piston and crankshaft.
Piston and crosshead bearing.
Cylinder head and exhaust valve.
Cross-head bearing and crankshaft.
When taking a set of crankshaft deflections the + sign is indicated, example +4. This means that …
the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.
the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.
the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm.
one main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm bigger than the other.
If a diesel engine cam drive fails, which of the following components is most likely to sustain damage?
Camshaft and bearings.
Pistons.
Main crankshaft bearings.
Valve push rods.
If the refrigerating plant required constant addition of refrigerant, the first place to check for gas leakage would be at the …
expansion valve.
room evaporator units.
compressor crankshaft seal.
compressor discharge valve.
When taking a set of Diesel engine crankshaft deflections why are two readings taken at BDC position?
The second is taken to check the accuracy of the first reading.
The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.
It is not possible to read the dial gauge accurately in one position.
During the rotating of the crankshaft the reading may vary.
In auxiliary diesel engines timing of the exhaust valve opening and closing is accomplished by …
the crankshaft.
the pushrods.
the camshaft.
the pistons.
Turbocharging an engine is the operation providing extra intake air to the engine using which of the following?
A compressor driven from the crankshaft.
An electrically driven air compressor.
A compressor driven by an exhaust gas powered turbine.
A steam driven turbine.
The connecting rod on a cross-head diesel engine is attached to which of the following?
Piston and crankshaft.
Piston and crosshead bearing.
Cylinder head and exhaust valve.
Cross-head bearing and crankshaft.
When taking a set of crankshaft deflections the + sign is indicated, example +4. This means that …
the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.
the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.
the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm.
one main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm bigger than the other.
If a diesel engine cam drive fails, which of the following components is most likely to sustain damage?
Camshaft and bearings.
Pistons.
Main crankshaft bearings.
Valve push rods.
If the refrigerating plant required constant addition of refrigerant, the first place to check for gas leakage would be at the …
expansion valve.
room evaporator units.
compressor crankshaft seal.
compressor discharge valve.
When taking a set of Diesel engine crankshaft deflections why are two readings taken at BDC position?
The second is taken to check the accuracy of the first reading.
The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.
It is not possible to read the dial gauge accurately in one position.
During the rotating of the crankshaft the reading may vary.
What is the purpose of the crosshead bearing?
To transmit piston power more directly to the crankshaft.
To prevent con rod side thrust being transmitted to the piston.
To assist in lubricating the top end bearing.
To prevent lub oil being deposited on the cylinder liner walls.
How can crankcase overpressure be checked?
Inspecting the crankcase relief valves.
Checking the crankcase breather outlet.
Checking the crankshaft seals.
Checking fuel pump tappet seals.
On a set of crankshaft deflection readings, what would a reading of +4 signify?
The crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.
The crank webs have opened up by 4/100 mm.
The crank webs have closed in by 4/100 mm.
The main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other.
Which is the more accurate means of position fixing?
A radar range and bearing.
Two radar bearings.
Two visual bearings.
A visual bearing and a radar range.
Power-driven vessel «A» sees power-driven vessel «B» as shown here at 6 miles range. What must vessel «A» do?
Reduce speed and monitor the compass bearing of «B».
If necessary, reduce speed or stop.
Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.
Keep her course, speed and carefully watch the compass bearing of «B».
You sight a vessel bearing 3 points abaft the starboard beam. Sometime later, it is bearing 3 points forward of the starboard beam. Which of the following circumstances apply?
Two vessels with the same speed and course.
Two power-driven vessels meeting.
A vessel overtaking situation.
Two power-driven vessels crossing with no risk of collision.
You have another vessel on your port bow in clear visibility, but with a moderate sea and swell. Which of the following would normally give greatest accuracy in determining if risk of collision exists?
Observation of the radar bearing and range.
Observation of the compass bearing over a period of time.
Observation of the radar range.
Observation of the radar bearing.
What is the function of component number 6?
To ensure correct balancing of the rotor.
To seal the motor internals.
To provide ventilation.
To locate the bearing.
You are underway on a tanker and observe the lights illustrated on a steady bearing and at decreasing range on the PORT bow. What do you do?
Maintain course and speed keeping a careful watch on the bearing of the other vessel.
Alter course to STARBOARD and sound ONE short blast.
Alter course to PORT and sound two short blasts.
Stand on to see if the other vessel takes avoiding action.
The purpose of radar is to enable …
the wave-lengths of radio waves to be calculated.
the echoes of targets to be separated.
the range and bearing of objects to be obtained.
the speed of radio waves to be measured.
Second trace echoes appear on the radar display at ….
correct ranges and bearings.
false ranges and bearings.
false bearings at the correct range.
false ranges on the correct bearing.
Target ranges are obtained from …..
the pulse repetition frequency.
the heading marker.
the range marker.
the bearing marker.
How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil?
Direct from the lub oil main line.
From the camshaft lub oil line.
Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.
Independently.
How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Diesel engine?
Via the crankshaft.
Via the camshaft.
Direct via the main lub oil line.
By its own independent supply system.
Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line?
The crosshead bearing.
The main bearings.
The thrust bearing.
The gear train.
When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are ….
at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling water supply is on.
not overheating, not leaking oil and that no white metal is spotted.
not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty.
not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
What does the picture show?
A gyro compass repeater, with a pelorus ring.
A magnetic compass, fitted with a bearing ring.
The master gyro compass.
The gyro steering repeater.
What is component number 3?
The cooling water inlet.
The lubricating oil outlet.
The cooling water outlet.
The air vent valve.
How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil?
Direct from the lub oil main line.
From the camshaft lub oil line.
Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.
Independently.
Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line?
The crosshead bearing.
The main bearings.
The thrust bearing.
The gear train.
All engine crankcase explosion investigations have shown only one thing in common; this is …
the build up of oil vapour.
excessively high lubricating oil temperature.
evidence of a hot spot.
a wiped crankshaft bearing.
If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen?
Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls.
Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls.
The engine cannot be started again.
The fuel pumps may be clogged.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin)?
70 degree °C.
75 degree °C.
85 degree °C.
95 degree °C.
What is shown here?
A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.
A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.
A seawater, basket suction strainer.
A centrifugal filter.
In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used?
Steam valve spindles.
Refrigerating installations.
Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.
Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems.
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because ….
an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
lubricating oil was transferred in port.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier?
Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check the overflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure.
Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, check whether the alarm is activated.
Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the back pressure, the bearing temperatures.
Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperature and the back pressure.
How is lubrication arranged in this refrigeration compressor?
By attached crankcase lub, oil pump.
By splash lubrication.
By a cylinder lubricator.
By independent lubricating pump.
How would this stern tube bearing be lubricated?
By grease.
By water supply.
By a closed lubricating oil system.
It is self lubricating.
What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System are shown here?
Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve.
Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.
Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve.
Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve.
Where would you find this instrument on board a ship?
In the Engine Control Room.
In the Boiler Control Panel.
In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel.
Near the fuel, lubricating oil or water piping.
Every ship above 400 tons gross shall be provided with tank(s) of adequate capacity to receive oily residues or sludges such as those resulting from …
heavy fuel oil purification leakages, lantern and scavenge spaces leakages and drainages from engines.
lubricating purification and crankcase leakages from machinery and stern tube leakages.
diesel oil leakages from purification, main and auxiliary engine fuel leakages.
All oil leakages in the engine room inclusive of these.
As a rule of thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be ……. hours.
1 to 2.
2 to 4.
4 to 6.
6 to 8.
As a rule of thumb, the time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at………….hours.
1 to 2.
2 to 4.
4 to 6.
6 to 8.
Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by …
losses in oil coolers.
malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricating oil system.
excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defective piston/scraper rings).
any of the other options.
Engine room piping colour coded yellow, carries which of the following?
Compressed air.
Seawater.
Lubricating oil.
Fresh water.
Auxiliary diesel engines on motorships supply ……
electricity for use onboard.
electricity for use ashore.
fresh water for drinking.
lubricating oil for use in the main engine.
The abbreviation LO stands for ……..
Left Out.
Lower Outer main engine.
Lubricating Oil.
Lock Out.
The main lubricating oil pumps would supply ………
salt water to the main engine.
lubricating oil to the air compressors.
lubricating oil to the main engine.
fuel oil to the main engine.
Centrifugal purifiers are used to remove ………
oil from bilge water.
dirt and water from compressed air lines.
small amounts of water from fuel or lubricating oil.
dirt from accommodation air.
Onboard ship which piece of equipment removes water from fuel and lubricating oil?
A purifier.
An evaporator.
An oily water separator.
A bilge pump.
On a modern ship the main engine lubricating oil is cooled by which of the following?
Air flowing over a radiator.
Sea water in a tubular heat exchanger.
Refrigeration circuit.
Main engine cooling water.
On modern ships, which type of pump would be used for supplying lubricating oil to the main engine?
A small gear type positive displacement pump.
A large centrifugal pump.
An axial flow pump.
A scroll type positive displacement pump.
In an engine room, pipework coloured green carries which of the following?
Sea water.
Lubricating oil.
Fresh water for main engine cooling.
Fresh water for drinking.
The main lubricating oil pumps would supply …………
salt water to the main engine.
lubricating oil to the air compressors.
lubricating oil to the main engine.
fuel oil to the main engine.
Centrifugal purifiers are used to remove ………
oil from bilge water.
dirt and water from compressed air lines.
small amounts of water from fuel or lubricating oil.
dirt from accommodation air.
Onboard ship which piece of equipment removes water from fuel and lubricating oil?
A purifier.
An evaporator.
An oily water separator.
A bilge pump.
On a modern ship the main engine lubricating oil is cooled by which of the following?
Air flowing over a radiator.
Sea water in a tubular heat exchanger.
Refrigeration circuit.
Main engine cooling water.
On modern ships, which type of pump would be used for supplying lubricating oil to the main engine?
A small gear type positive displacement pump.
A large centrifugal pump.
An axial flow pump.
A scroll type positive displacement pump.
In an engine room, pipework coloured green carries which of the following?
Sea water.
Lubricating oil.
Fresh water for main engine cooling.
Fresh water for drinking.
Oily water separators are used in which one of the following situations?
To separate water from lubricating oil.
As part of the bilge pump system.
To separate oil and water from refrigeration gas in the refrigeration cycle.
To separate oil and water from compressed air systems.
Which of the following arrives in drums as well as in bulk?
Lubricating oil.
Fuel oil.
Diesel oil.
Fresh water.
What does the picture show?
An auxiliary engine coupled with an alternator.
A refrigeration plant compressor.
An oily water separator.
An emergency fire pump connected to the auxiliary engine.
What action should you take during your watch if you find that more water than usual has collected in the bilge wells?
Pump the bilges overboard with the bilge pump.
Pump the bilges overboard with the emergency bilge pump.
Ask permission to pump the bilges via the 15 ppm oily water separator.
Pump the bilges into the bilge collecting tank.
Why is there an oil separator «OS» fitted as shown here?
Because Freon absorbs oil and it needs to be separated.
To separate the oil dragged with the Freon from the compressor.
To separate oil during compressor start-up.
To collect the oil before stopping the compressor.
What are items «NR» fitted after the compressors?
Demisters.
Oil separators.
Safety valves.
Check valves.
What is item «M» fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor (IAC)?
An oil separator.
An automatic drain valve.
A moisture separator.
A drain valve.
What liquid substance is present in chamber 1 of this oil-water separator?
Clean oil.
Water.
Dirty oil.
Oil/water mixture.
If a dirty oily water mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where will the dirt settle?
With the liquid item 3.
On the bottom item 4.
With the liquid item 2.
On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3.
Which force is acting to separate water from oil in this separator?
Centrifugal force.
Gravitational force.
Kinetic energy.
Chemical potential.
Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this Sharples separator, shown left?
On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl.
On the oil/water separation plate.
On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl.
Near separating plate flushed off with water.
Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right?
On the cylindrical surface of the bowl.
On the bottom of the bowl.
On the top separation plate between oil and water.
In between the discs.
The Sharples separator, shown left and the Disc type separator, shown right, both run at high RPM. But which runs at the highest speed?
Both run at the same RPM.
The Sharples runs at a higher RPM.
The DISC type runs at a higher RPM.
It depends for which kind of oil gravity either is used.
The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing oils between which density ranges?
0,845 to 0,965.
0,78 to 0,98.
0,87 to 0,95.
0,84 to 0,945.
If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect?
Water will discharge with the clean oil.
Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier.
The purifier will overflow oil on the water side.
The high temperature alarm will activate.
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because….
the engine room bilges were found dirty.
the engine room bilge lines were found dirty.
the oily water separator filters were found dirty.
the sludge tank was found to be full.
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because …..
an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
lubricating oil was transferred in port.
Which parts of a refrigeration plant are shown here?
Compressor, dryer, evaporator.
Compressor, oil separator, evaporator.
Compressor, collector, condenser.
Compressor, oil separator, condenser.
If when in port there is an urgent need to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do?
Authorise pumping the bilges over the side via the oily water separator.
Instruct the watchkeeper to lower the bilges only during night time.
Issue strict instructions that the bilges must only be discharged to a shore tank or barge facility.
Instruct the watchkeeper to pump bilges to the dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook.
Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company?
By the state of cleanliness on board.
By judging the morale of the officers and crew on board.
Through interviewing officers and crew.
By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator.
Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers is prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted?
Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment.
50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system.
15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system.
Interface oily water detector.
Under MarpoL the IOPP certificate of any ship must be supplemented by ……..
endorsements for annual surveys.
endorsements for intermediate surveys.
a record of construction and equipment.
compliance certificates for the oily water separator, incinerator and sewage plant.
Bilges must always be pumped to the sea via …………..
the centrifugal purifier.
the oil mist detector.
the forecastle head.
the oily water separator.
Onboard ship which piece of equipment removes water from fuel and lubricating oil?
A purifier.
An evaporator.
An oily water separator.
A bilge pump.
Oily water separators are used in which one of the following situations?
To separate water from lubricating oil.
As part of the bilge pump system.
To separate oil and water from refrigeration gas in the refrigeration cycle.
To separate oil and water from compressed air systems.
Oily water separators perform which of the following?
They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard.
They make sure that no raw sewage is pumped overboard.
They remove the water from the fuel before it is burnt.
They clean engine scavenges.
Which of the following removes the oil from bilge water before the water can be pumped overboard?
Oily water separators.
Purifiers.
Oil filters.
Evaporators.
The efficiency of an oily water separator will be adversely affected by the presence of which of the following in the bilges?
Any of these will affect the efficient operation of the separator.
Carbon cleaning solvents.
Proprietary hand cleaning materials.
Cleansers for washing down engine room paintwork.
To obtain the maximum efficiency when operating a centrifugal separator, heavy fuel oil should be …
Heated to 80-90 °C (175-195 °F).
Purified at bunker tank temperature.
Purified with the constant addition of water.
Heated to a minimum of 120 °C (248 °F).
Machinery space oil/water separators are required to reduce the oil content in the discharge to …
15 parts per million when used anywhere.
Less than 15 parts per million (ppm), if used in «special areas».
Less than 100 parts per million (ppm), for discharging in all.
Bilges must always be pumped to the sea via ………….
The oily water separator.
The centrifugal purifier.
The oil mist detector.
The forecastle head.
Onboard ship which piece of equipment removes water from fuel and lubricating oil?
A purifier.
An evaporator.
An oily water separator.
A bilge pump.
Oily water separators are used in which one of the following situations?
As part of the bilge pump system.
To separate water from lubricating oil.
To separate oil and water from refrigeration gas in the refrigeration cycle.
To separate oil and water from compressed air systems.
Oily water separators perform which of the following?
They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard.
They make sure that no raw sewage is pumped overboard.
They remove the water from the fuel before it is burnt.
They clean engine scavenges.
Which of the following removes the oil from bilge water before the water can be pumped overboard?
Oily water separators.
Purifiers.
Oil filters.
Evaporators.
The efficiency of an oily water separator will be adversely affected by the presence of which of the following in the bilges?
Any of these will affect the efficient operation of the separator.
Carbon cleaning solvents.
Proprietary hand cleaning materials.
Cleansers for washing down engine room paintwork.
To obtain the maximum efficiency when operating a centrifugal separator, heavy fuel oil should be …
Heated to 80-90 °C (175-195 °F).
Purified at bunker tank temperature.
Purified with the constant addition of water.
Heated to a minimum of 120 °C (248 °F).
Machinery space oil/water separators are required to reduce the oil content in the discharge to…
15 parts per million when used anywhere.
Less than 15 parts per million (ppm), if used in «special areas».
Less than 100 parts per million (ppm), for discharging in all sea areas.
Less than 15 gallons per hour while in port or 100 gallons per hour while at sea.
What is the difference when using a centrifugal separator as a clarifier rather than a purifier?
The clarifier does not require a water seal.
There will be less discs and wider separation spaces when clarifying.
When clarifying a different set of discs must be used.
Clarifiers will use a different size of dam ring.
Which of the following conditions in oil/water separators would contribute most to oil carry-over with the water discharge?
High throughput, cold mixture & high oil density.
Low oil density, low throughput & hot mixture.
Hot mixture, low oil density & high throughput.
Cold mixture, high oil density & low throughput.
What is the circuit shown here used for?
As an amplifier.
As an rectifier.
As a voltage regulator.
Tо measure a DC current.
What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel?
To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.
To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.
To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.
To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.
Can the speed of an asynchronous motor be regulated?
No, because the windings are not designed for that.
Yes, if a thyristor regulator is used.
Yes, using resistors in series with the stator winding.
No, because speed can only be regulated by adjusting the voltage of the rotor winding.
Voltage form number 2 represents the output from a DIAC in a DIAC/TRIAC voltage regulator. What is the voltage used for?
To close the TRIAC.
To fire a light diode.
To fire the TRIAC.
To reverse the TRIAC voltage.
If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylene pressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to what should they be connected?
The oxygen and acetylene bottles.
Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.
Gas bottles depending the material to weld.
Safety valves.
By which unit is the combustion intensity in this boiler controlled?
By pressostat controlled fuel admission solenoids.
By the regulating valve «R».
By the compound regulator.
By the position of the air flap.
What burner equipment item operating when the ignition indication light is illuminated on this boiler’s control panel?
The fuel solenoid «S».
The recirculating valve «R».
The compound regulator «CR».
The pilot burner «PB».
What is the purpose of the part circled red?
To protect the motor from water.
To cover the fan of the motor.
To cover the lubrication inlet.
To cover the speed regulator.
What do you call the valve that prevents steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working pressure?
The safety valve.
The steam regulator valve.
The steam pressure reducing valve.
The main steam stop valve.
Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here?
A pressure regulator.
An amplifier.
A nozzle/flapper assembly.
A transmitter.
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to …
the speed of the alternator.
the output current of the alternator.
the output voltage of the alternator.
the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have as characteristics that …
the current is calibrated by a compensation system.
between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.
thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated for.
minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated for by a regulator/compensator.
What is component C called?
The expansion valve.
The suction valve.
The pressure regulator.
The condenser valve.
Under OPA 90, the term «OSRO» means ….
Official Safety and Regulatory Organisation.
Oceanic Science Regional Observatory.
Oil Spill Response Organisation.
Offshore Scientific Research Organisation.
What do the letters «GRT» mean?
Gross Registered Tonnage.
Grave Reverse Trim.
Ground Rules of Trim.
Grain Regulatory Tests.
During parallel operation of two or more AC alternators, a failure of one of the prime-movers will not cause the associated alternator to be «motored» due to the action of …
the constant speed (isochronous) governor.
the automatic voltage regulator (AVR).
the reverse power protection relay.
the overcurrent protection relay.
A universal pipe fitting used to connect the vessel to a shoreside water main in any country is called …
a fire safety adaptor.
an international shore connection.
a fire system regulator.
a stand pipe valve.
Vessels may be equipped with different types of lifeboat. What is the crucial aspect that all types of lifeboat have in common?
The workmanship and materials used in construction.
The regulatory instructions for on-board maintenance of life-saving appliances.
The type of equipment found in the boat.
The method of launching from the mother vessel.
The «Human Element» is a complex multi-dimensional issue that affects both maritime safety and marine environmental protection. Which definition in your view best describes the meaning of the words «Human Element»?
The entire spectrum of human activities performed by ship’s crews, shore based management, regulatory bodies and other relevant parties.
A structured approach for the proper consideration of human element issues.
The human errors we make and which lead to maritime disasters.
The findings from marine incident investigations.
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to what?
The speed of the alternator.
The output current of the alternator.
The output voltage of the alternator.
The output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
With large load change what maintains steady voltage?
Automatic voltage regulator.
Automatic voltage regulator & flywheel.
Flywheel & governor.
Governor & automatic voltage regulator.
How does a two-stage pressure regulator give precise control?
Both stages are adjustable.
First stage only is adjustable.
Second stage only is adjustable.
Automatical regulation of both stages.
We’ll be able to hear the ___________ news in half an hour.
live.
current.
latest.
remote.
It is dangerous to swim there because of the strong ___________.
wave.
movement.
trend.
current.
A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show?
100 Amps.
33,3 Amps.
0 Amps.
110 Amps.
Can a current as low as 25 mA kill a human being?
Yes, but only if applied for a long period.
Yes, but only if the applied voltage is high enough.
Yes, but only from an AC source.
No, not a fit healthy person.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.
What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the generator main bus-bars?
To measure the generator output voltage.
To measure the generator output current.
To measure the temperature of the bus-bar.
To prevent bus-bar overload.
Calculate the current «l» in the diagram?
100 mA.
0,01 mA.
1,0 A.
0,01 A.
What is the circuit shown here used for?
As an amplifier.
As a rectifier.
As a voltage regulator.
To measure a DC current.
What is the purpose of a «Y/Delta» starter?
To start either a D or an Y connected motor.
To regulate large AC motors.
To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.
To reduce the start time for an AC motor.
What is the purpose of the circuit shown here?
To measure low frequent current.
To measure the resistance of RL.
To measure voltage E.
To calibrate resistance Rv.
Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is the best course of action?
Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level.
Adjust the speed of one generator.
Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output.
Adjust the speed of both generators.
What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor?
At the rated current.
At 5-15 % over the rated current.
At 200 % of the rated current.
At 10 % below the rated current.
An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the «over current» relay. What action would you take?
Increase the current setting on the «over current» relay.
Replace the «over current» relay.
Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.
Complete the sentence. Ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system because …
it limits fault current.
an earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and circuit breakers to trip.
it reduces cable size.
it reduces switch gear ratings.
The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following?
Its speed, frequency and number of poles.
Its voltage, current and impedance.
Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.
Its rotor emf, current and power factor.
Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by …..
current overload.
the wrong types of brushes.
the strength of the field.
any of these.
What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel?
To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.
To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.
To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.
To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.
What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?
The current decreases.
The current increases.
The current remains the same.
The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.
Electric current is defined as the flow of electrons through a conductor. This is measured as …..
voltage.
resistance.
inductance.
amperage.
Voltage multiplied by current equals …..
resistance.
capacity.
power.
efficiency.
If the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant, the current will be …..
doubled.
halved.
remain the same.
quadrupled.
What is the current I3?
I1 – I2.
I1.
I1 + I2.
I2.
Which of the following options would be considered «good seamanship»?
Using radar when proceeding at full speed in fog.
Sounding a fog signal when in clear weather, but approaching a fog bank.
Using deck and accommodation lights to indicate the presence of your ship in poor visibility.
Proceeding on the port side of a narrow channel to take advantage of a favourable current.
What is the purpose of the parts circled in red?
To assist the motor cooling.
Ventilation slots.
To assist induction currents.
To dispense with the cooling fan.
Which statement is correct?
The TTL family of integrated circuits consume less current than the CMOS family of integrated circuits.
A CMOS integrated circuit is a non-digital switching system.
A TTL integrated circuit has a low processing speed.
The CMOS family of integrated circuits consume less current than the TTL family of integrated circuits.
What is a safe interval between position fixes?
Before the vessel is due to alter course.
When the weather changes.
So that the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were incorrect.
So that the vessel cannot be set appreciably off course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current.
When underway, what is the principal threat to the ship?
To have an engine breakdown.
To have a collision with another ship.
To experience adverse current.
To be late due to bad weather.
The intensity of the electron beam in the CRT is controlled by ….
passing a current through the deflection coil.
varying the potential on the grid.
a signal from the time unit.
the action of the first anode.
Target echoes are received in the display unit in the form of ….
an increased potential to the grid.
a pulse from the brightening unit to the cathode.
a signal from the scanner to the deflection coil.
a current from the final anode to the screen.
How should the anchor be positioned when a ship is due to anchor in a river with a strong current?
It should be lowered to just above the water level.
It should be properly secured to prevent damage.
It should be lowered to just below the water level.
It should be ready to drop at any time from its normal secured position.
Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or «The Company»?
Could be any of the other options.
The Owner.
The Manager.
The Bareboat Charterer.
Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity?
A situation which indicates the nonfulfillment of a specific requirement.
Lack of comfort leading to health risks.
Not conforming with safe working practices which may lead to accidents.
A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
What is meant by a major nonconformity under the ISM code?
A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of the ship or personnel or to the environment.
A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.
A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge of oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the ship.
A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is diminished.
The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through …..
written procedures and work instructions.
training by qualified instructors.
videos and books.
regular on board inspections by the Company’s shore based personnel.
The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information: …..
All of the other options.
the defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and amongst shore and shipboard personnel.
the procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.
the provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures for internal audits and management review.
Under ISM, the Company should establish……………to describe how the objectives of the ISM code will be achieved.
a safety and environmental policy.
company regulations.
company newsletters.
circulation of informative guidelines.
Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is….
known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as well as shore based.
known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
known by all ships officers.
known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.
The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be __________________ standards required by the ISM code.
set above.
deviating from.
a substitute for.
set below.
A Company’s safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the standards of the ISM code, should be ….
encouraged and supported.
totally disregarded since not enforceable.
erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.
discouraged.
Under ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted ………
remains the responsibility of the Company.
becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor.
becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor.
is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand.
Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code?
To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters concerning safety and environmental protection to the management.
To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitions requested by the ship.
To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on board.
To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between the Authorities and the ship’s staff.
Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person?
A university degree.
Twenty years seagoing experience.
A master’s certificate.
Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM Code.
A ….. should be issued for every Company complying with the requirements of the ISM Code by the Administration, or by the Organisation recognised by the Administration.
Safety Management Certificate.
Document of Compliance.
International Shipmanagement Certificate.
Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate.
In relation to the ISM Code, what is the function of the «DESIGNATED PERSON»?
This is just a alternative title for the master.
The person with a direct link between management & the ship. He assumes responsibility in the event of an incident.
The person appointed by the company to visit ail fleet ships regularly, and check SMS systems are in place.
The person ordered by owner to visit the ship unannounced, and to report back his findings.
Under the ISM Code the owner must:
Report the full name and details of the Company.
Operate the ships themselves.
Not charter the ship.
None.
The ISM Code is expressed in broad terms because:
It can have a wide spread application.
It can have a narrow application.
It can have a restricted application.
All of these options.
On compliance with the ISM Code, a DOC is issued to:
The Company.
The Manning agent.
The Ship.
The Operator.
«Company» means an entity who has agreed to:
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed by the ISM Code.
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed only by the MARPOL Convention.
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed by the STCW Convention.
None.
In the ISM Code the reference to «Convention» means:
SOLAS Convention.
MARPOL Convention.
LOADLINE Convention.
All of these options.
To which of the following ship types does the ISM Code not apply?
All of these options.
Warships.
Fishing boats.
Non-propelled barges.
On compliance with the ISM Code, a SMC is issued to:
The Ship.
The Company.
The Manning agent.
The Operator.
What is the threshold of Gross Tonnage that requires a ship to comply with the ISM Code?
500 GT.
400 GT.
1 000 GT.
1 600 GT.
The purpose of the ISM Code is to provide:
An international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention.
Varying standards of safety.
Varying standards of pollution prevention.
None.
What is the primary legislation on which all other legislation concerning the operation of the ISM Code is based?
SOLAS Chapter IX – Management for the Safe Operation of Ships.
IMO Resolution A.741 (18) – International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention.
IMO Resolution A.739 (18) – Guidelines for the Authorisation of Organisations acting on behalf of Administrations.
IMO Resolution A.913 (22) – Guidelines for the Implementation of the ISM Code by Administrations.
The objective of the ISM Code is to ensure:
All of these options.
Safety at Sea.
Prevention of human injury or loss of life.
Avoidance of damage to property and environment in particular the marine environment.
Where would you expect to find information about pilot transfer arrangements for your ship?
The ISM Code.
The ship’s manuals.
SOLAS.
The Master’s standing orders.
What are the language requirements of the ISM Code?
Knowledge of the English language with emphasis on maritime terms.
Procedures written in a working language or languages understood by the crew.
Compulsory language lessons for all crewmembers.
A language requirement for crew members is not mentioned in the ISM Code.
What is the meaning of the word «observation» as used in the ISM Code?
It is a formal report made by the safety officer during the monthly onboard safety meeting.
It is the ship’s position line as calculated by the navigator at noon.
It is the master’s report to the Designated Person.
It is a statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiated by objective evidence.
Bulk grain cargo should be carried as directed under the rules of ….
the IMDG Code.
the SOLAS (IMO) Grain Rules.
the ISM Code.
the IAMSAR Manual.
A ………. management system complying with the ISM Code must be in place on all gas carriers of 500 gt and upwards.
safety.
personnel.
certification.
fabric.
What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code?
An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO.
The International Ship Management Association’s Code for navigational safety.
The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices.
The international code for transportation of cargoes safely on board ships, as regulated by Marpol Annex III.
The Safety-Management System should ensure in the first place …
that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.
compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.
that all Marpol requirements are complied with.
that Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because …..
the engine room bilges were found dirty.
the engine room bilge lines were found dirty.
the oily water separator filters were found dirty.
the sludge tank was found to be full.
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because …..
an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
lubricating oil was transferred in port.
These items are standard inspection items for Marpol, as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong?
Item II – does not belong.
Item V – does not belong.
Item VI – does not belong.
Item VII – does not belong.
The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is ….
an international pollution law.
an equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78.
United States legislation.
only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf.
Under ISM, which methods can the Master use to implement the Company’s Safety and Environmental policy?
Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules.
At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and the workload on the ship, as well as weather conditions.
As defined and documented by the Company.
He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and the shipboard safety committee.
According to Marpol, what does the term «oil» mean?
Any grade of crude oil.
Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil.
Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products.
Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products.
According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term «oily mixture»?
A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm.
A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm.
A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm.
A mixture with any oil content.
Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker?
No.
Yes.
Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals.
Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.
According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term «oil fuel»?
A cargo of heavy fuel oil intermediate fuel or diesel oil.
A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers.
A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree °C.
Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery.
According to Marpol, what does the term “new ship” mean?
A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995.
A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June 1976.
A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979.
All of the other options apply.
What does the «instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content» mean, according to Marpol?
The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment.
The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3 600.
The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant, divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant.
The total quantity of oil discharged, divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship.
What is the best description of a «special area» as defined by Marpol?
An area with particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required.
An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at any time.
A sea area where, for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions, and in view of traffic, special prevention is required.
A sea area where, in view of its particular dense traffic, no overboard discharge of any oily mixture is allowed.
What is the meaning of «slop tank» as defined by Marpol?
Segregated ballast tanks only.
Any tank where slops or sludges are collected.
The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fitted centre tank.
A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures.
Which description given is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol?
Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below.
Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines.
Which is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast?
Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used.
The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast.
The dean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump.
The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank, pumped via the segregated ballast pump.
Marpol defines Crude Oil as….
a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not, irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.
a liquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed.
a liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions were added.
a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which neither distillate fractions were removed nor added.
Every oil tanker of … grt and above and every other ship of … grt and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
500, 1 000.
400, 700.
250, 500.
150, 400.
The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service, in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations, shall include ….
a complete survey of all piping.
a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks and slop tanks.
a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials, in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil discharging monitoring system, oil filtering and separating systems.
Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to exceed ……
two years.
two and a half years.
three years.
five years.
If mandator/annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it affect unscheduled inspections carried out according to Marpol?
The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory.
Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required.
Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years.
Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period.
Who may carry out MARPOL Surveys?
Port-State Control Inspectors.
Coast Guard Inspectors.
Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations.
Approved ship’s officers.
Who may carry out Marpol Inspections?
Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
Coast Guard officers.
Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.
All of the other options.
What is the meaning of a «harmful substance» under Marpol?
Oils and fuels.
Hydrocarbons in any form.
Petroleum products and petrochemicals.
Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
What does «discharge» mean in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol?
Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship.
Spilling, leaking or escaping from the ship.
Dumping or disposal from the ship.
Any release however caused.
What is the meaning of «an incident» according to Marpol?
The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture.
The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances.
The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture.
The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances.
Penalties under the law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be …
imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.
imposed by all countries, the severity depending on where the violation occurs.
in all cases most severe.
When alterations to the ship’s construction, equipment materials, fittings or arrangements are carried out without sanction, the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception?
Improvement in ship’s construction.
The direct replacement of equipment and fittings.
Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and lay-out does not deviate from Marpol requirements.
Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the Administration.
Which of the areas listed are designated as Special Areas by Marpol Annex I?
I, II, III. VI. X, XI, XIII, XIV.
I, III, VI, IX, X, XI, XIII, XIV.
I, II, VI, VIII, IX, XI, XIII, XIV, XV.
II, III, V, VI, X, XII, XIII, XIV.
What does the picture show?
A compressor.
A purifier.
A generator.
A turbine pump.
Which part is the turbine wheel?
Number 4.
Number 7.
Number 8.
Number 9.
What is part number 11?
The turbine wheel.
The blower.
The turbine outlet.
The blower ring.
Which of the following would most likely account for a decrease in main engine scavenging air temperature?
An increase in air volume.
A rising air temperature in the air cooler.
A dirty turbine wheel.
A decrease in air volume.
The turbo charger turbine wheel is rotated by ….
Pressured air supplied by blower number 10.
Inlet air coming from the inlet filter.
Exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.
Any of the other options.
What type of boilers are fitted (one only shown) to feed this turbine installation?
Scotch type boilers.
Water tube boilers.
Cochran type boilers.
Exhaust dissipation boilers.
Item «H» of the drawing indicates ………………… of this turbine installation?
The distributor.
The steam filter.
The manoeuvring stand.
The steam reducer.
This installation consists of the following turbine combination:
A high pressure and a low pressure turbine.
A turbine system with ahead and astern manoeuvring capability.
The HP and LP turbine acting in tandem to one reduction gear.
All of these options.
What are items «R» and why are they required?
Thrust bearings. To catch axial force and propel the ship.
Reducing block bearings. As turbine shaft support.
Coupling flanges. To allow disassemble of pinion gears.
Flexible couplings. To allow flexibility between HP and LP turbines.
Why is steam allowed to position – «J» – of the turbine «J»?
It is the steam regenerating line.
It is the steam gland feeder line.
It is the steam to the astern turbine.
It is the parallel reduced steam line.
Why are components «S» required?
To transform rotating power into axial power.
To absorb the vibrations on the propeller.
To reduce high turbine speed to propeller speed.
To enable maximum fuel efficiency of the turbine installation.
Name the two (2) different lubrication oil circuits of a steam turbine?
The front bearing circuit/The rear bearing circuit.
The reduction gear oil/The turbine shaft bearing oil.
The bearing and gear oil circuit/The governor oil circuit.
The thrust bearing and shaft circuit/The front and governor circuit.
What kind of steam is feeding the astern turbine fitted on the same rotor as the LP turbine?
Steam from the main steam manifold via manoeuvring stand.
Exhaust steam from the high pressure turbine.
Reduced superheated steam via a pressure reducer.
Regenerated steam via resuperheater.
Why is a thrust bearing required on this turbine?
To absorb the forward thrust of the propeller.
To absorb the vibrations.
To counterbalance the labyrinth action.
To avoid the rotor shifting due to imbalance in steam pressure.
What kind of shaft seals are used on this high pressure turbine?
Mechanical seals.
Vacuum seals.
Counterbalancing seals.
Labyrinth seals.
What type of high pressure steam turbine is shown here?
A Reaction turbine.
A Zoelly turbine.
A Curtis turbine.
A Zoelly turbine with prebolted Curtis wheel.
In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical power?
In part 2, the turboblower.
In the main engine.
In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.
In part 5, the scavenge air blower.
In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power?
In the main engine.
In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5).
In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1).
In the exhaust gas boiler.
For a turbo charger running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump temperature on the turbine side?
35 to 45 degrees °C.
45 to 50 degrees °C.
55 to 65 degrees °C.
72 to 82 degrees °C.
Saturated steam produced by a boiler should be separated from moisture …
by the superheater.
by cyclones.
by passing through the dry pipe.
in the turbine steam trap.
What are the prime movers that can be used to drive medium to large size industrial alternators?
Internal combustion engines.
Steam turbines.
Gas or hydraulic turbines.
Any of the other options.
The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting?
0,5-1 %.
2-3 %.
4-6 %.
6-7 %.
Which part in this diagram is the high pressure turbine?
No. 1.
No. 6.
No. 4.
No. 2.
Which part in this diagram is the low pressure turbine?
No. 1.
No. 2.
No. 3.
No. 4.
What is part No. 3?
Turbine coupling.
Turbine bearing.
Turbine drive gear train.
Turbine electromagnetic clutch.
Which way does the steam pass through the system?
From the condensor to the low pressure turbine.
From the low pressure turbine to the high pressure turbine.
From the high pressure turbine to the low pressure turbine.
From the supply valve to the high pressure turbine.
Inert gas blowers are …
paddle type low speed blowers.
reciprocating type blower units.
low speed type centrifugal fans.
turbine type centrifugal blower fans.
What is the advantage of having a steam turbine driven inert gas fan on a tanker fitted with an auxiliary steam plant?
A steam driven turbine fan does not easily trip when there is a malfunction on the inert gas plant.
A steam turbine fan can give higher speeds.
A steam turbine driven fan creates initial load on the boiler facilitating inert gas production.
A steam turbine fan is less costly to maintain and more easy to operate.
On a steamship at sea electricity is supplied by ……………
gas turbines.
diesel engines.
the main engine.
turbo alternators.
The majority of auxiliary engines on modern ships are ………..
gas turbines.
four stroke diesel engines.
large two stroke diesel engines.
steam turbines.
You are on watch at night and you stop the main engines. What changes would you make to your navigational lights?
Switch the steaming lights off.
Switch on three vertical red lights.
Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off all other navigational lights.
Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off steaming lights.
What is item «V»?
A flow control valve.
A viscometer.
A fine filter.
A steam trap.
Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?
The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.
The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.
The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.
All of these options.
How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external temperature drops below its pour point?
By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank.
By circulating it with the transfer pump.
By heating the oil with steam via steam coils or steam banks.
By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered.
If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?
Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.
Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.
Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.
Drain the service tank at shorter intervals.
What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved?
45 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
45 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used?
Steam valve spindles.
Refrigerating installations.
Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.
Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems.
Item «H» of the drawing indicates ……………….. of this turbine installation?
the distributor.
the steam filter.
the manoevring stand.
the steam reducer.
Why is steam allowed to position – «J» – of the turbine «J»?
It is the steam regenerating line.
It is the steam gland feeder line.
It is the steam to the astern turbine.
It is the parallel reduced steam line.
Name the two (2) different lubrication oil circuits of a steam turbine?
The front bearing circuit/The rear bearing circuit.
The reduction gear oil/The turbine shaft bearing oil.
The bearing and gear oil circuit/The governor oil circuit.
The thrust bearing and shaft circuit/The front and governor circuit.
Of what is this finned pipe a part?
Of an exhaust gas boiler steam generator.
Of an exhaust gas boiler economiser.
Of an exhaust gas boiler superheater.
Of any of the other options.
What is the purpose of the fins fitted on this steam piping?
As «Harmonica» piping, to make the piping flexible.
To increase the heated surface of the piping.
To allow for expansion with temperature differences.
To absorb the vibrations existing in the funnel.
After sometime, scale build-up is unavoidable in steam generating coils. How is it removed?
By clearing with boiler tube brushes.
In the drydock by chemical engineers.
By the circulation of chemicals by small pump in port.
By flushing with the boiler water circulation pump.
What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating unit?
Plug the pipe.
Plug the section/bank.
Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.
Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.
What kind of burner would be fitted to this boiler?
A high speed jet burner.
A rotating cup burner.
A steam assisted burner.
A rotating nozzle burner.
What is item «A» in the steam lay-out drawing?
The main 7,0 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 7,0 bar – 3 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 7,0 bar steam pressure relief valve.
The 3,0 bar steam pressure relief valve.
What is item «B» in this steam lay-out drawing?
The 7,0 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 3,0 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 7,0 bar manifold safety valve.
The 3,0 bar manifold safety valve.
What is item «C» in this drawing of the steam lay-out?
The 7,0-3,0 bar steam reducing valve.
The main steam reducing valve.
The main safety blow-off valve.
The 3,0 bar safety blow-off valve.
What is item «D» in this drawing of a steam layout?
A stem pressure reducing valve.
A steam balancing valve.
A blow-off valve.
A safety relief valve for the low pressure manifold.
The exhaust steam line of one of the consumers shown in this drawing will not return via the atmospheric condenser but direct via a water trap to the hot well. Which one?
Viscorator.
Purifiers.
M.E. heating.
Laundry.
What kind of steam is feeding the astern turbine fitted on the same rotor as the LP turbine?
Steam from the main steam manifold via manoeuvring stand.
Exhaust steam from the high pressure turbine.
Reduced superheated steam via a pressure reducer.
Regenerated steam via resuperheater.
Why is a thrust bearing required on this turbine?
To absorb the forward thrust of the propeller.
To absorb the vibrations.
To counterbalance the labyrinth action.
To avoid the rotor shifting due to imbalance in steam pressure.
Which alarm and shut-down device is fitted on the thrust bearing assembly?
The low lub oil flow alarm.
The steam pressure reducing alarm.
The axial clearance alarm.
The cooling water alarm.
What type of high pressure steam turbine is shown here?
A Reaction turbine.
A Zoelly turbine.
A Curtis turbine.
A Zoelly turbine with prebolted Curtis wheel.
In a split, reduced steam manifold, one manifold of pressure 7,0 bar, the other 3,0 bar. From which manifold are the returns taken direct to the hotwell?
From the 7,0 bar manifold.
From the 3,0 bar manifold.
From either the 7,0 bar or the 3,0 bar manifold.
Neither.
Why is there an air vent provided on the atmospheric condenser?
To blow off excess steam.
To avoid vacuum and keep atmospheric pressure.
To prevent the hotwell from steaming up.
To de-airate, to avoid corrosion.
What is the purpose of a steam trap, shown as «ST» on the drawing?
To retain the steam and let the water pass.
To retain the water and let the steam pass.
To let steam and water pass only under atmospheric pressure.
To let water pass only under a vacuum.
The use of a steam trap has a beneficial influence on the thermal balance of the heat exchanger fitted before that trap. This is because ……
it will allow the steam to expand to atmospheric pressure.
all heat is used under corresponding saturated pressure.
all heat will be extracted from the steam before turning to water.
it will allow the steam to expand below atmosphere to vacuum.
You will notice in this drawing that steam traps are fitted so only condensate can return. Then why is there an atmospheric condenser fitted?
Because the water is condensed under pressure and will revaporete.
To allow the vapour and water to be cooled under vacuum.
To de-airate the water under vacuum.
To avoid steaming up if steam traps are frequently stuck or defective.
What would happen if the cooling water is shut off the atmospheric condenser?
Steam will blow from the air vent.
The hot well will steam up.
Overpressure will occur in the condenser.
All of the given options.
Professionals like doctors make a better _____________ than unskilled workers.
life.
living.
profit.
occupation.
Nick _______________ in London all his life.
lives.
has lived.
was living.
is living.
What does this picture show?
Automatic falls release arrangement.
A boathook ready for use.
The fall block on a gravity davit.
The boarding arrangements for a modern lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
An open lifeboat.
An open liferaft.
A dedicated rescue man overboard rescue boat.
An enclosed lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
An emergency lifeboat radio.
A man overboard light/smoke signal.
An EPIRB.
A red parachute rocket distress flare.
What does the picture show?
A freefall lifeboat.
An open lifeboat.
A high speed rescue boat.
A rigid survival capsule.
What does the picture show?
Quick release gear.
Hydrostatic release gear.
A lifeboat falls wires and hoisting winch.
A portable lifeboat engine.
What does the picture show?
A stored inflatable liferaft.
A container for storing lifejackets.
A lifeboat freshwater container.
A container for storing distress rockets.
What does the picture show?
A man overboard lifebuoy with attached light and smoke signal.
A stored lifebuoy with light.
A lifebuoy with parachute distress flare.
An early warning signal.
What does the picture show?
The controls of an enclosed lifeboat.
The bridge automatic pilot.
The controls of a ship’s crane.
The controls of an open lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
The controls of a watertight door.
The controls of a lifeboat escape hatch.
The lifeboat brake and falls release cable.
The lifeboat engine starting levers.
What does the picture show?
Lifeboat fire extinguishers.
Enclosed lifeboat emergency air supply.
Breathing apparatus air tanks.
СO2 supply in case of fire.
What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM Code?
A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.
A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge of oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the ship.
A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is diminished.
A deviation from the ISM Code which poses a serious threat to safety of the ship or personnel or to the environment.
The safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, include …
continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection.
hiring of outside training companies to conduct onboard safety training of its shipboard personnel.
holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into the water every week.
conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke free areas on board.
The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place …
that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.
compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.
that all Marpol requirements are complied with.
that Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.
What is the most aspect of communication with the deck department?
Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.
Executing of orders from the bridge.
Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.
Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.
Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company?
By the state of cleanliness on board.
By judging the morale of the officers and crew on board.
Through interviewing officers and crew.
By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator.
Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives and should include, among other things …
methods to lower the lifeboats.
measures to mitigate identified risks.
efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
What is a «CHARTER»?
A term used to describe any voyage, from loading port to discharge.
A contract for the hire of a ship for a voyage or series of voyages, or for the carriage of a specific quantity of cargo on a number of voyages.
A specific period in the life of a ship, that describes its employment history.
The lease of a ship by a third party, whereby the charterer assumes the rights of ownership.
What is the meaning of a «harmful substance» under Marpol?
Oils and fuels.
Hydrocarbons in any form.
Petroleum products and petrochemicals.
Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what?
The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged.
The report of the accident indicating precautions.
The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge.
The amount discharged and the reasons for it.
SELECT THE VERB WHICH IS APPROPRIATE TO USE IN THE SENTENCE: The wish of every individual _____________ a dignified life.
is.
are.
develop.
work.
What «deviations» does a Charterer consider justifiable?
None. A ship that deviates for whatever cause automatically goes off-hire.
When the remaining bunkers are not sufficient to make it to the designated voyage port.
When the crews provisions are not sufficient to make it to the designated voyage port.
When made to save life or avoid an imminent danger.
What does «SOLAS» stand for?
Safe official lifeboat appliance signals.
Save our lives and ship.
Safety of life at sea.
Safe orderly lifesaving appliance system.
What does «ILO» stand for?
International Labour Organisation.
Intermediate Lifeboat Operation.
International Labour Operation..
Inoperative Lighter Overload.
What is the part marked with the square called?
A lifeboat davit.
A lifeboat fall.
A lifeboat painter.
A lifeboat catcher.
What type of boat is in this picture?
A totally enclosed lifeboat.
An open freefall lifeboat.
A fast rescue boat.
A liferaft.
With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with lifeboats?
Check and tighten all lashings.
Remove all covers and secure the plug.
Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure.
Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.
When the inboard end of a gangway is resting on the bulwark, what else must be provided?
A bulwark ladder properly secured and fenced.
Stanchions.
A life buoy with self igniting light.
A large wooden crate pushed against the bulwark.
What is the tool shown upper right?
A hydrant wrench.
A bearing cap-wrench.
A purifier assembly wrench.
An orifice removal wrench.
According to SOLAS – the number and position of hydrants shall be such that …
at least two jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which, from a single length of hose, may reach any part of the ship.
at least three jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which from a single length of hose may reach any part of the ship.
at least one jet of water shall reach any part of the ship that is normally accessible by the crew.
at least two jets of water shall reach any part of the ship.
Which of the following faults would you consider less serious on a fire hydrant?
No hydrant cap fitted.
Valve handle missing.
Not greased.
Leaking.
What is the «hawse pipe»?
The pipe through which the anchor cable connects to anchor.
The pipe leading into the anchor chain locker.
A mooring line lead for the Panama canal.
The pipe that carries water to the fire hydrants on deck.
Which of the following faults would you consider less serious on a fire hydrant?
No hydrant cap fitted.
Valve handle missing.
Not greased.
Leaking.
When on passage, what should be the condition of the fire main?
Sea suction and fire main discharge valves open ready to pressurise the main when the fire pump is started.
Pressurised at all times.
Drained and empty to prevent leakage at hydrants.
All pump and isolating valves closed.
Should water be circulated through the main engine during a port stay, and if so why?
Yes, circulating the auxiliary jacket water will maintain the main engine temperature.
Yes, as this will maintain watertight condition of hoses and connections.
No, as this would result in extra water consumption from main engine water leaks.
No, as this will prevent the auxiliary engines attaining the correct temperature.
Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code?
To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on board.
To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters concerning safety and environmental protection to the management.
To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitions requested by the ship.
To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between the Authorities and the ship’s staff.
What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system?
Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture.
Open up the main and cylinder head starting valve and clean pistons.
Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner.
See that the cylinder starting valve is moving by air hose connection.
Steam produced by a boiler whose temperature is above that corresponding to its pressure is referred to as …… ?
superheated steam.
dry steam.
regenerated steam.
bled steam.
ОРА 90 – tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to …….
disperse floating oil.
wash oil from the dock.
prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
wash oil off the cargo deck.
ОРА 90 – the costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can …
greatly exceed the cost of the oil itself.
cost shipowners and operators their assets.
lead to prosecution of those involved.
All of the other options.
Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to newly assigned personnel prior to sailing. What are «essential instructions»?
Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and insure that they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board.
SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incoming crewmember.
The role in the shipboard organisation, dayworker or watchkeeper, which watch assigned to.
Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms and bathrooms.
Every ship above 400 tons gross shall be provided with tank(s) of adequate capacity to receive oily residues or sludges such as those resulting from ….
heavy fuel oil purification leakages, lantern and scavenge spaces leakages and drainages from engines.
lubricating purification and crankcase leakages from machinery and stem tube leakages.
diesel oil leakages from purification, main and auxiliary engine fuel leakages.
All oil leakages in the engine room inclusive of these.
Regulation 23 of Marpol Annex I is concerned with the hypothetical outflow of oil from tankers. What is understood by this?
The total accumulated amount of oil discharged into the sea by a tanker.
The quantity of the oil spilt which may be caused due to main Cargo pipe or connecting hose rupture during loading or discharging.
The oil discharged into the sea in the case of side damage or bottom damage.
The outflow of oil via the pump room sea chests due to untight valve sets.
During all cargo oil loading/discharging or bunkering operations as well as during oil transfers, oil spill equipment should be ……
kept near the deck manifold and be used in accordance with the chief officer’s instructions.
readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use by the assigned deck party.
kept in the emergency headquarters to be used in accordance with the instructions of the responsible person.
kept in the vicinity of the cargo transfer or bunker transfer hoses near the manifold connections and be used if required by the emergency party.
Dump valves fitted to manifold trays on tankers should be ….
connected to flexible hoses fitted to receptacle drums.
checked regularly that they can be easily opened.
tested regularly for leakages.
fitted with caps to ensure that they are not leaking.
After oil cargo loading/discharge or bunkering, draining of shore lines, hoses and loading arms may be done under pressure provided which of these precautions are followed?
I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII.
I, II, III, V, VII, IX.
II, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX.
II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII.
The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen correctly. In general the more frequent the interval the better. However, too short intervals are inefficient and too long intervals ……….
will also give bad efficiency.
may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.
will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.
may result in water seal depletion.
What is a «BAREBOAT CHARTER»?
When a ship is delivered to the charterer without stores, provisions, and bunkers.
It is a charter for an agreed period.
It is the charter of a ship that has no cargo handling equipment.
It is the charter of a ship whose cargo holds are empty.
What is the extent of a «P & I» club’s cover?
Complete coverage for any & all claims, within the limitation amounts specified in the policy.
Most clubs are prepared to provide a range of cover to suit an owner’s particular needs.
P & I club cover is generally limited to personal injury and death claims only. Very limited cover may be incl for cargo damage & pollution.
P & I club cover is very selective and only available to those owners considered prudent. Owners with poor records are not accepted.
What would you do if someone’s clothes catch fire?
Go and find a fire hose.
Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
Telephone the bridge.
Shout for help while getting the first aid kit.
What item of fire extinguishing equipment, usually found in the galley, is particularly effective on fires involving hot cooking oil?
A fire blanket.
A bucket of water.
A water filled extinguisher.
A fire hose.
What type of fire hose nozzles must be available on board?
Jet type.
Spray type.
Dual purpose (jet/spray type).
Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating shutoff.
According to SOLAS – the number and position of hydrants shall be such that …
at least three jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which from a single length of hose may reach any part of the ship.
at least two jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which, from a single length of hose, may reach any part of the ship.
at least one jet of water shall reach any part of the ship that is normally accessible by the crew.
at least two jets of water shall reach any part of the ship.
Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recover Position. Why is this position so important?
This position ensures the heart keeps beating.
This position makes it easy to minimise any kind of bleeding.
This position ensures that an open airway is maintained.
This position prevents the patient from falling asleep.
Which deckhands are not permitted to work aloft?
All ordinary seamen.
Cadets or apprentices.
Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience.
All of the other options.
What does the picture show?
An auxiliary engine.
A compressor.
A generator.
A purifier.
Which of following items should be checked before a ship sails?
That cargo is stowed safely.
That all moveable objects are secured.
All bridge equipment, main engine, auxiliary systems and the steering system.
All of the other options.
The pressostat shown in the picture controls the cut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the pump’s electric motor would this be connected?
The main contactor.
The timer.
An auxiliary relay.
An overload relay.
What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time?
The lights may be a dimmed a little.
The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.
The generator may trip on overload.
Nothing special.
Which part is the auxiliary fan?
Number 6.
Number 7.
Number 9.
Number 10.
Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by ….
a defective fuel valve.
a low air pressure.
lubrication low pressure.
not using the auxiliary fan.
Should water be circulated through the main engine during a port stay, and if so why?
No, as this would result in extra water consumption from main engine water leaks.
Yes, as this will maintain watertight condition of hoses and connections.
Yes, circulating the auxiliary jacket water will maintain the main engine temperature.
No, as this will prevent the auxiliary engines attaining the correct temperature.
If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change?
They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees °C).
They will remain the same.
They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees °C).
They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees °C).
For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is used?
Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet.
On board your vessel the main engine consumes hourly 1 375 litres HFO. the boiler 560 litres per hour and the auxiliary diesel 166 litres per hour. At what throughput shall you feed the HFO purifier?
3 700 litres/hour.
3 200 litres/hour.
2 600 litres/hour.
2 350 litres/hour.
What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank?
To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse.
To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks.
To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.
To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils.
In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted?
Main engine scavenge air manifold.
Ventilation air ducts.
Air compressors cylinder heads.
Auxiliary diesel crankcase door explosion relief valves.
If the auxiliary seawater pump «AS» fails, which pump should be used to cool the condensers?
Fire Pump «FP».
General Service Pump «GSP».
Hydrophone Pump «HP».
Main Sea Water Pump(s) «MS».
If the reefer condenser pump «PP» fails, which pump would you use to supply cooling water to these reefer condensers?
Fire Pump «FP».
General Service Pump «GSP».
Auxiliary SW Pump «AS».
Any of these pumps may be used.
If the auxiliary condenser is not in use for any operation at sea, which pump should be used to cool the atmospheric and dumping condensers?
The General Service Pump «GSP».
The Fire Pump «FP».
The Reefer Condenser Pump «PP».
By the Main Seawater Pump «MS».
During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because …….
an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
lubricating oil was transferred in port.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply?
That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer’s standing orders, number of generators on load.
That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptable.
That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel.
That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel.
The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for …
dissolved oxygen.
dissolved nitrogen.
chlorides.
sulphites.
What does item «C» indicate in this electrical starting circuit?
The main contactor.
The auxiliary contactor.
A thermal relay.
The overload.
A split-phase motor is an induction motor where the magnetic fields are produced by ….. that causes the motor to rotate.
two permanent magnets.
the shunt and the series windings.
the main and the auxiliary windings.
the three stator windings.
The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ….
an auxiliary engine kielled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.
an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.
a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.
a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller.
What is the function of the compressor?
To compress hot air.
To pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.
To compress the refrigerant.
To compress hot air and to pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.
Inert gas is produced on board of ships by ….
the main boilers.
the auxiliary boilers.
an Inert Gas Generator.
any of these.
What is the advantage of having a steam turbine driven inert gas fan on a tanker fitted with an auxiliary steam plant?
A steam driven turbine fan does not easily trip when there is a malfunction on the inert gas plant.
A steam turbine fan can give higher speeds.
A steam turbine driven fan creates initial load on the boiler facilitating inert gas production.
A steam turbine fan is less costly to maintain and more easy to operate.
According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term «oil fuel»?
A cargo of heavy fuel oil, intermediate fuel or diesel oil.
A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers.
A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree °C.
Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery.
Every ship above 400 tons gross shall be provided with tank(s) of adequate capacity to receive oily residues or sludges such as those resulting from ….
heavy fuel oil purification leakages, lantern ard scavenge spaces leakages and drainages from engines.
lubricating purification and crankcase leakages from machinery and stern tube leakages.
diesel oil leakages from purification, main and auxiliary engine fuel leakages.
All oil leakages in the engine room inclusive of these.
When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence of activities?
Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored.
Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 sec: the power is restored.
Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored.
Time zero + 30 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 45 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec: the power is restored.
Auxiliary boilers found on motor ships are usually ……
fire or smoke tube type.
used to start the main engine.
used to supply electrical power.
used to supply electrical power for the ship.
Auxiliary diesel engines on motorships supply ……
electricity for use onboard.
electricity for use ashore.
fresh water for drinking.
lubricating oil for use in the main engine.
What does the symbol in the diagram show?
A zener diode.
A thyristor.
A bridge rectifier.
A diode.
What does the symbol in the picture show?
A double amplifier.
A latch.
A lock amplifier.
A latch rectifier.
What is the function of the circuit shown in the diagram?
A full wave rectifier.
A half wave rectifier.
A zero point meter.
A transformer balance adjuster.
What is the function of the circuit shown here?
DC to AC voltage converter.
Three phase rectifier.
Three phase AC converter.
Three phase oscillator.
What is the circuit shown here used for?
As an amplifier.
As an rectifier.
As a voltage regulator.
To measure a DC current.
What is component X called?
A converter.
An integrator.
An invertor.
A rectifier.
Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction?
A rectifier.
A transistor.
A transformer.
A rheostat.
What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal?
A transducer.
A reducer.
A transformer.
A pressure rectifier.
This diagram shows the characteristics of a ….
transistor.
capacitor.
diode.
rectifier.
What is this component shown called?
An integrated rectifier.
A diode.
A transistor.
A capacitor.
What is the name of this component?
A high power diode.
A low power diode.
A high power transistor.
A high power halfwave rectifier.
How many diodes are there in a single phase full bridge rectifier?
Two.
Three.
Four.
Six.
This is a ………..
temperature compensation system.
wheatstone bridge.
rectifier bridge.
temperature calibration system.
If excessive current flows in a circuit which of the following automatically isolates the circuit?
The fuse.
The isolating switch.
The rectifier.
The ammeter.
How is a zener diode different from an ordinary rectifier diode?
The zener diode has a much higher forward voltage drop.
The zener diode can carry greater forward currents than a rectifier diode.
The zener diode can operate at higher temperatures than a rectifier diode.
The zener diode usually operates with a reverse voltage.
This diagram is a schematic drawing for a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit. Which one of the diodes is drawn incorrectly in reverse position?
Diode 1.
Diode 2.
Diode 3.
Diode 4.
What is the result if one of the two rectifier diodes, shown here, becomes open circuited?
The output will become an AC voltage.
The transformer secondary will overheat.
The peak output voltage will be half the normal value.
The circuit will operate as a halfwave rectifier.
One type of phase sequence indicator which may be provided in a vessel’s shore power junction box is basically a …
miniature three-phase induction motor.
miniature three-phase reverse voltage relay.
miniature three-phase rectifier circuit.
miniature singlephase sequence-lagged induction motor.
What is a likely result if one of the two rectifier diodes, shown here, becomes short circuited?
The second rectifier diode will fail due to over-current.
The output will be a full-wave rectified AC voltage.
The circuit will operate as a half-wave rectifier.
The peak output voltage will be half the normal value.
What is wrong with the schematic of the three-phase rectifier circuit shown?
Output polarity is incorrect.
Diodes 1 and 2 are reversed.
Diodes 3 and 4 are reversed.
Diodes 5 and 6 are reversed.
Which of the following is used to increase or decrease DC voltage?
Simple wound transformer.
Rectifier.
Rotary convertor.
Transducer.
The main purpose of the capacitor shown in the half-wave rectifier circuit shown here is to …
limit output current to a safe value.
limit output voltage to a safe value.
limit voltage fluctuations from the output terminals.
limit current fluctuations from the output terminals.
How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective?
By fitting a voltmeter over one phase.
By fitting lamps over the three phases.
By fitting lamps crossed over two phases.
By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases.
Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralleled with another?
If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected.
Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.
The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.
What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship?
440 Volt and 220 Volt.
Electric motors and lighting circuits.
2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.
4 × alternators, 2 × transformers.
In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced?
In the excitator.
In the sliprings.
In the rotor.
In the stator.
How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled?
By the alternator speed.
By the excitation current in the rotor.
By the excitation current in the stator.
By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.
How many sliprings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator?
Two.
Four.
Three.
Six.
If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got?
Two.
Four.
Six.
Eight.
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to …………..
the speed of the alternator.
the output current of the alternator.
the output voltage of the alternator.
the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
When parallel running alternators, what affects the reactive power of each alternator (kVAR)?
The power throttle of the driving units.
The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator.
The excitation current.
The temperature of the windings due to load distribution.
Name the three conditions which must prevail to parallel one alternator with another?
Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency.
Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase.
Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.
Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal.
Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line to the distributors should fail and the insulation break through?
The undervoltage relay.
The short circuit protection.
The reverse current trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switch breaker?
The overload trip.
The reverse current trip.
The undervoltage/overvoltage trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power factor load, example induction motors?
The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt.
What are the prime movers that can be used to drive medium to large size industrial alternators?
Internal combustion engines.
Steam turbines.
Gas or hydraulic turbines.
Any of the other options.
The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254,34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage?
254,34 Volt.
230 Volt.
147 Volt.
440 Volt.
Two 3 phase 4 160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load of the system is 1 050 kW with power factor 0,75 lagging. If alternator No 1 is carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging …………
the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0,7352.
the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0,7064.
the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0,6914.
the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0,658.
Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3 phase. 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A is 60 kW, 90 % power factor and the load of B is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load?
472,8 Amps.
458,8 Amps.
429,8 Amps.
416,8 Amps.
It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i. e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur?
Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs.
Where two generators are running in parallel.
Where three generators are running in parallel.
When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input.
Alternator temperature indicators often giving readings in degrees Fahrenheit. If a reading is 80 degrees F, how many degrees Celsius is this?
23,8.
26,6.
29,2.
32,7.
How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working?
By lowering the generator frequency.
By raising the generator frequency.
By raising the alternator voltage.
By lowering the alternator voltage.
What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit on the generator circuit breaker?
It trips the alternator by under voltage.
It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage.
It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage.
All of these options.
If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device will activate?
The preferential trip.
The low frequency trip.
The overspeed trip.
The under voltage trip.
The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting?
0,5-1 %.
2-3 %.
4-6 %.
6-7 %.
If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse Power Relay’s pick up setting be?
5-10 %.
10-15 %.
8-10 %.
5-12 %.
The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ….
an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.
an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.
a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.
a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify on the electrical main switch board?
The alternator on load, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency.
The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the condition of the transformers, the non-essential consumers.
The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of the overload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available.
Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems.
The best way of testing the «standby» function of the emergency diesel alternator is by …
switching on the «test run» button on the emergency diesel switchboard.
starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies.
causing a total black-out on the ship, for example in drydock or when time is available in port.
by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.
A ship’s electrical system is usually the so-called «insulated neutral» type. What does this mean?
The system’s zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator.
The system is totally insulated from the ship’s hull.
The system is totally insulated from the ship’s 220 V distribution system.
The system does not have a neutral point.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.
What is the purpose of a preference load tripping system?
To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can cause damage.
To re-connect essential equipment after a black out.
To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.
To trip a generator if the load becomes too large.
What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the generator main bus-bars?
To measure the generator output voltage.
To measure the generator output current.
To measure the temperature of the bus-bar.
To prevent bus-bar overload.
What will happen if the connections between an ammeter and an instrument transformer located on the generator main bus-bars are disconnected?
The ammeter will go to zero.
The ammeter will go to maximum.
The ammeter will read zero and the instrument transformer will quickly become overheated.
Nothing will happen.
What is the purpose of a Tacho generator?
To measure impedance.
To measure revolutions per minute (RPM).
To measure the direction of shaft rotation.
To measure the relationship between impedance and frequency.
Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is the best course of action?
Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level.
Adjust the speed of one generator.
Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output.
Adjust the speed of both generators.
The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid battery for the emergency generator is found to be 1,250. What action would you take?
Top up with water.
Refresh with the addition of new acid.
Check the charging system and if possible increase the charging rate.
No action is required.
In the «Ward/Leonard» method of DC motor speed control, how is the motor direction changed?
Reversal of generator polarity.
Reversal of motor field polarity.
By reversal of the rotation of the generator.
By switching the motor armature connections.
When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit breaker be closed?
When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly anticlockwise and at 11 o’clock position.
When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o’clock position.
When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11 o’clock position.
When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o’clock position.
Complete the sentence. A serieswound generator has the field windings in series with its …
armature.
brushes.
commutator.
field poles.
The voltage in a 60 Hz AC generator is adjusted by ….
the number of poles.
the speed of the engine of the generator.
the magnetic field strength.
the number of series conductors.
DC generators are rated in ……..
KwA.
HP.
KVA.
KW.
AC generators are rated in ….
KVA.
KwA.
Kw.
HP.
What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel?
To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.
To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.
To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.
To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.
The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:
A tripped bus circuit breaker.
Excessive prime mover speed.
Failure of the exciter.
The generator’s rotating speed is 10 % below rated.
What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with other generators?
Trip off the generator from the switchboard.
Remove the load from the generator to be stopped.
Switch off all connected loads.
Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line.
What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator?
To prevent main circuit overload.
To prevent over speeding.
To maintain good load sharing.
To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
What does the picture show?
An auxiliary engine.
A compressor.
A generator.
A purifier.
The intermediate frequency is generated by the …
mixer crystal.
magnetron.
selsyn generator.
local oscillator.
Identify the misspelled word…
generete.
generator.
generally.
generation.
What does the picture show?
A portable generator.
A portable pump.
A portable air compressor.
An outboard engine.
Select the word that is out of place…
galley.
stove.
pots.
generator.
What liquid is present in collecting point 11 at the bottom of the fresh water generator evaporator shell?
Ejector water.
Brine.
Fresh water.
Sea water.
What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water in this fresh water generator?
The vacuum and ejector pump item 13.
The seawater pump supplying the evaporating water item 14.
The ejector pump and seawater pump combined.
The waste heat from the main engine.
How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator?
By the condensing effect in the condenser.
By pumping or educting out the brine.
By the vapour eductor driven by the ejector pump.
By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.
What is a power-driven vessel?
Any vessel which is self-propelled.
Any vessel propelled by an internal combustion engine.
Any vessel propelled by machinery.
Any vessel other than a vessel propelled by sails.
What is part number 3?
The air chamber.
The combustion center.
The combustion chamber.
The piston glider.
Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by …
a piston ring failure.
a burnt piston top.
a leaking exhaust valve.
All of the other options.
Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by ….
a defective fuel valve.
a low air pressure.
lubrication low pressure.
not using the auxiliary fan.
By which unit is the combustion intensity in this boiler controlled?
By pressostat controlled fuel admission solenoids.
By the regulating valve «R».
By the compound regulator.
By the position of the air flap.
What force makes a safety valve of a diesel engine open?
The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder.
The exhaust gas pressure.
The fuel pressure to the cylinder head.
The pressure inside the combustion space.
The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the number of:
piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution.
piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.
strokes in each combustion cycle.
combustion events occurring in each stroke.
What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder?
To facilitate piston overhaul.
To have good an effective combustion.
To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder.
To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface.
Under normal conditions, how is the superheated steam outlet temperature regulated?
By diverting part of the flow through the desuperheater.
By varying the combustion air.
By regulating the water supply temperature.
By replacing the burners nozzles.
Uneven flame distribution during combustion in the boiler furnace is known as …
flame impingement.
furnace overload.
burner flame failure.
unequal firing.
What are the prime movers that can be used to drive medium to large size industrial alternators?
Internal combustion engines.
Steam turbines.
Gas or hydraulic turbines.
Any of the other options.
In a trunk type piston, the gudgeon pin is subject to two forces. What are these forces?
Exhaust pressure and combustion force.
Linear and rotating motion.
Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation.
Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque.
What is the principle behind producing inert gas on board ship?
By the combustion of fuel oil to produce exhaust gases with an oxygen content of less than 5 %.
By using the carbon dioxide in the exhaust gas to act as a fire extinguisher.
By the combination of water and sulphur dioxide produced by the combustion of heavy fuel.
Using exhaust gases of heavy fuel oil combustion which are smothering agents at high temperatures.
What is the purpose of the inert gas Scrubber Tower?
To remove sulphur corrosion components from the gases.
To desuperheat the inert gases produced by the boiler by running the gases through water screens.
To remove soot particles and to saturate the gas with water.
To cool the flue gases and remove most of the sulphur and soot particles.
In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of …………
forming a film between liner and rings, acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of combustion gases and reducing friction between parts.
ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will not overheat.
cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbon between the piston rings is cleared away.
flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into the scavenge space.
Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to …
excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.
blocked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box wear rings or sealing rings.
slow combustion caused by poor injection.
wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.
Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by …………..
losses in oil coolers.
malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricating oil system.
excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defective piston/scraper rings).
any of the other options.
What is the purpose of the inert gas scrubber tower?
To remove sulphur combustion components from the gases.
To cool the inert gases produced by the boiler by running the gases through water screens.
To remove soot particles and to saturate the gas with water.
To cool the hot gases and remove the soot particles.
In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and not enough air to support combustion, we say the mixture is …
over concentrated.
saturated.
too lean.
too rich.
Some cargoes, such as certain types of coal, can heat themselves up to a temperature where they can automatically ignite. What is this process called?
Biological heating.
Spontaneous combustion.
Nuclear fission.
Biomass conduction.
The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by ………
the viscosity of the fuel being high.
the wind and current being favourable.
the wind and current holding the vessel back.
poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.
Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead center?
Combustion clearance.
Cylinder clearance.
Compression clearance.
Any of these.
Why is it important to check the timing on the cylinder oil lubricators?
To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder.
To avoid excess lubrication.
To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber.
To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the correct position.
What will the effect be if a fuel injector valve is dripping after completion of injection?
Better combustion.
Damage to piston & liner.
Less carbonizing.
Greater output of the engine.
Why blow the engine over on starting air before a start?
To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders.
To be sure that no parts are loose, or that the engine is blocked from rotation.
To get fresh air into cylinders ensuring a safe start of the engine.
To be sure that all indicator cocks are closed and there is no passage into the combustion chamber.
If the chloride contamination of the main engine jacket water was increasing, what would you check first?
Contamination of the jacket water with combustion gases.
Internal water leakage.
Sea water contamination via a heat exchanger leak.
The quality of the domestic supply used for the topping up water.
If you suspected bacterial contamination of the fuel oil, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of bacterial growth?
Presence of water in the fuel.
Unpleasant smell when cleaning filters.
Inefficient combustion.
Although fuel pressure is low, the filters appear clean.
Another term or word for combustion is …
injection.
detonation.
atomisation.
burning.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating a decrease in the TBN, what would you suspect?
Fuel contamination.
Incorrect oil has been used for topping up.
Combustion product contamination.
Jacket water contamination.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating a decrease in the TBN, what would you suspect?
Fuel contamination.
Sea water contamination.
Incorrect oil has been used for topping up.
Contamination with combustion products.
What does the picture show?
Pump motors.
Cylinder heads.
Turbo chargers.
Injectors.
What is the primary cause of scavenge air space fires?
Blow-by due to broken piston rings.
Insufficient cylinder lubrication.
Faulty injectors.
Excessive cylinder lubrication.
What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only?
The engine is overloaded.
The main engine RPM is too high.
Faulty fuel injector.
Cooling water restriction.
The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector is shown here as a red interrupted line. For «UMS» classed vessel, how is this pipe best described?
It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity.
It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted.
It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the alarm sounded.
It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture.
What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder?
The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.
The mechanical force of the fuel cam.
The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.
The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.
If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can ……………
tension the injector spring more.
tension the fuel pump spring more.
adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.
adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.
The injector seen in the drawing is best described as ……………… type injector.
a heavy fuel oil.
a diesel oil.
a forced circulation.
a water cooled.
What is the component shown here?
A Defector.
A Constructor.
An Injector.
An Ejector.
After a total black-out with an automatic power supply system, what is the correct sequence for restarting the essential pumps once the Lower is restored?
Main sea water pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, lub oil pump, injector CW pump.
Jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, lub oil pump, main sea water pump.
Main lub oil pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, main sea water pump.
Injector CW pump, main sea water pump, jacket and piston CW pump.
The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber and the ….
injector.
compressor.
diffuser.
siphon.
With regard to the fuel system of a diesel engine which of the following applies?
The h.p. fuel pump needs no maintenance during the life of the engine.
The fuel injectors need checking and adjusting at regular intervals.
After a short period the injectors are replaced and the old ones thrown away.
The injectors never need attention during the life of the engine.
If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure on the injector, what should you do?
Tension the injector spring more.
Tension the fuel pump spring more.
Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.
Adjust the fuel pump cam to retard.
What will the effect be if a fuel injector valve is dripping after completion of injection?
Better combustion.
Damage to piston & liner.
Less carbonizing.
Greater output of the engine.
How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in a fuel injector valve?
By length of stroke.
By camshaft regulation.
By oil pressure.
By spring adjustment.
If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, how many clogged holes are acceptable?
0.
1.
2.
3.
If the emergency generator is put on load after a long idle period and hunts as the load is increased, what would you check first?
The engine governor.
The fuel oil filters.
The fuel injectors.
The fuel injection pumps.
After a total electrical failure, what is the correct sequence for restarting the essential pumps once the power is restored?
Main sea water pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, lub oil pump, injector CW pump.
Jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, lub oil pump, main sea water pump.
Main lub oil pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, main sea water pump.
Injector CW pump, main sea water pump, jacket and piston CW pump.
What is the best way of preventing scavenge fires in a slow speed two stroke diesel?
Keep scavenge spaces clean.
Ensure fuel injectors are maintained.
Maintain correct cylinder lubrication.
Burn only the specified grade of fuel.
What determines delivery pressure on a Bosch type fuel pump?
The spring setting on the fuel injector.
The length of stroke of the fuel pump.
The position of the fuel pump control rack.
The fuel cam profile.
What is the effect on the fuel injector atomisation if the oil temperature is too high?
Carbon forming on the burner tips distorting flame shape.
Insufficient excess air.
Smoke at uptake.
Damage to refractory and overheating.
What is the purpose of the injector leak-off connection?
To relieve excess fuel pressure.
For fuel leaking past the delivery valve.
For fuel leaking past the injector needle valve.
To prevent watercooling entering the fuel space.
Where is the fuel injector leak-off connection fed?
Into the oily bilge collection tank.
Into the «in use» daily service tank.
Into the fuel bunker tanks.
Into the fuel oil separator suction.
After work on the fuel system what must be carried out?
Filters renewed.
Injectors changed.
System bled through at the injectors.
System bled through at main filters.
What is the original power that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder?
The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.
The mechanical force of the fuel cam.
The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.
The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.
How is the fuel injection timing altered on a Diesel engine?
By altering the injector setting.
By altering the fuel pump lift.
By moving the camshaft position.
By adjusting the camshaft drive chain.
The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few minutes even though the bilge is empty. What action would you take?
Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board.
Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit board for this alarm group.
Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps.
Start the bilge pump.
An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the «over current» relay. What action would you take?
Increase the current setting on the «over current» relay.
Replace the «over current» relay.
Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.
How are double bottom ballast tanks filled?
They are pumped in.
They are gravitated in.
They are gravitated in, then topped up with the ballast pump.
They are filled by a shore line.
What does the picture show?
An auxiliary engine coupled with an alternator.
A refrigeration plant compressor.
An oily water separator.
An emergency fire pump connected to an auxiliary engine.
What does the picture show?
A fire pump.
An evaporator.
A compressor.
A purifier.
What does the picture show?
Pump motors.
Cylinder heads.
Turbo chargers.
Injectors.
What does the picture show?
A compressor.
A purifier.
A generator.
A turbine pump.
What does the picture show?
A purifier.
A compressor.
A fuel pump.
A generator alternator.
Why is there an indicating flap «IF» (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling water buffer tank?
To indicate if the pump is running.
To indicate that the engine is running.
To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.
To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump?
To keep the oil lenipeidluie constant.
To absorb pump vibrations.
To keep the oil pressure constant.
To act as a high pressure safety valve.
What type of pump is the pump «P»?
A centrifugal pump.
A piston pump.
A gear or worm wheel pump.
A vane pump.
When taking over the engine room watch, what are you to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water?
The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer’s standing orders and check for any accumulation and its source.
Check accumulation source and piping and check when the bilges were last pumped.
Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verify whether bilges were pumped.
Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were last pumped.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
What does the picture show?
A portable generator.
A portable pump.
A portable air compressor.
An outboard engine.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure standby?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stem tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
What is the purpose of the sea water pump item N° 13?
To supply sea water to the condenser.
To drive the air ejector of the evaporator.
To supply water to be evaporated.
To cool the evaporator.
What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water in this fresh water generator?
The vacuum and ejector pump item 13.
The seawater pump supplying the evaporating water item 14.
The ejector pump and seawater pump combined.
The waste heat from the main engine.
How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator?
By the condensing effect in the condenser.
By pumping or educting out the brine.
By the vapour eductor driven by the ejector pump.
By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.
What is the purpose of the calliper shown in the bottom left corner?
Measuring piston ring gaps.
Measuring fuel pump lifts.
Measuring inside diameters of hydraulic pipes.
Measuring inside diameters or gaps.
This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (N° 6) is worn excessively?
The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload.
The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output.
The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur.
The housing will be attacked by cavitation.
What type of centrifugal pump is shown here?
Multi-stage, medium speed.
Floating, self balancing, single stage.
Self priming, single stage, high speed.
Single stage, high speed.
What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz)?
About 2 300 RPM.
About 1 500 RPM.
About 1 150 RPM.
About 870 RPM.
The pressostat shown in the picture controls the cut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the pump’s electric motor would this be connected?
The main contactor.
The timer.
An auxiliary relay.
An overload relay.
What is part number 5?
The pump shaft.
The motor shaft.
The pressure outlet.
An air seal.
What part number is the pump shaft?
Number 2.
Number 1.
Number 5.
Number 4.
For what type of load would a star/delta starter be employed?
A centrifugal pump.
A small compressor.
An air start compressor.
For very heavy loads composed of resistors.
What is part number 1?
The fresh water pump.
The fresh water generator.
The salt water generator.
The thermostat pump.
If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen?
Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls.
Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls.
The engine cannot be started again.
The fuel pumps may be clogged.
What is part number 3?
The purifier.
The primary pump.
The clarifier.
The suction filter.
Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer «T»?
Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.
Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.
Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.
None of the other options.
Under Marpol, the IOPP certificate of any ship must be supplemented by …..
endorsements for annual surveys.
endorsements for intermediate surveys.
a record of construction and equipment.
compliance certificates for the oily water separator, incinerator and sewage plant.
There are 6 Annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by ……
I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
I = Garbage, II = Air pollution. III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage?
It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must be installed on board.
The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stringent regulations.
Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long as a sewage plant is on board.
Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being.
Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of countries (for example USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these items?
I, II, III, V, VII.
I, II, IV, VI, VIII.
I, III, V, VII, VIII.
II, III, IV, V, VI.
Onboard ship an evaporator performs which one of the following functions?
It supplies fresh water to the accommodation from the engine room.
It desalinates sea water to make fresh water.
It treats raw sewage by biological degradation.
It dries compressed air after leaving the air compressor.
Oily water separators perform which of the following?
They make sure that no raw sewage is pumped overboard.
They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard.
They remove the water from the fuel before it is burnt.
They clean engine scavenges.
What does the word «bilge» mean?
Loose talk or gossip.
Waste from the galley.
The sewage treatment tank.
The lowest part of the inside of the ship.
Where is bituminous paint applied?
Ballast tanks.
Bilges.
Fresh water tanks.
Sewage tanks.
Which MARPOL ANNEX deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Sewage?
Annex III.
Annex IV.
Annex V.
Annex VI.
Under MAPOL ANNEX IV Regulation 5, after survey, a ship shall be issued with a …
Sewage Record Book?
Sewage Management Plan?
Sewage Treatment Certificate?
International Sewage Pollution Prevention Certificate?
Where on board ship are you not likely to be in danger from H2S?
Near vents and air ducts.
In and near sewage holding tanks.
Working in locker rooms.
Working in the galley.
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the sewage system?
II.
III.
VI.
IV.
Why are anaerobic bacteria not desirable in a sewage system?
They are not very efficient.
They can produce toxic or flammable gases.
They are not killed off by the chlorinator.
They produce a foul smell.
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge comminuted and disinfected sewage?
3 nautical miles.
6 nautical miles.
9 nautical miles.
12 nautical miles.
Where on board ship are you not likely to be in danger from H2S (Hydrogen Sulphide)?
Near vents and air ducts.
In and near sewage holding tanks.
Working in locker rooms.
Working in the galley.
Which of the items listed is not a concern of MARPOL Annex VI?
Vapour emissions.
Incineration.
Fuel sulphur levels.
Sewage disposal.
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge untreated sewage?
3 nautical miles.
6 nautical miles.
9 nautical miles.
12 nautical miles.
What is a hydrometer used to check?
Distilled water.
Battery electrolyte.
Sewage treatment plant discharge.
Chlorine content of drinking water.
What type of pollution does Annex VI of MARPOL deal with?
Sewage pollution.
Oil pollution.
Garbage pollution.
Air pollution.
MARPOL Annex III deals with ________
Regulations for the prevention of pollution from ships. – Harmful substances in packaged form.
Regulations for the prevention of pollution from ships. – Sewage.
Regulations for the prevention of oil pollution from ships.
Regulations for the prevention of pollution from ships. – Noxious liquid substance in bulk.
What type of pollution does Annex I of MARPOL deal with?
sewage.
oil.
garbage.
air.
MARPOL Annex I deals with _________
Sewage from ship.
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
Oil pollution from ship.
Harmful substances carried by sea in package form Cont Deck Cdt. – Relevant knowledge in Navigation/Work principles and procedures/Basic knowledge on S.
By the year 2001 the world pollution ___________________.
will have doubled.
will be doubled.
will double.
doubled.
Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions would you say is the most important?
Plug the scuppers.
Place smoking and naked light restrictions and notices.
Exhibit International Code В flag and red light.
Check over-side for pollution.
Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment?
Cargo shifting, collision, explosion.
Fire, flooding, grounding.
Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing.
Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering.
The SMS should include procedures ensuring that …………. are reported to the company, investigated and analysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution prevention?
illness and injury.
cargo operations and ballast operations.
non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations.
crew changes.
What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code?
An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO.
The International Ship Management Association’s code for navigational safety.
The International Code for accident prevention and safe working practices.
The international code for transportation of cargoes safely on board ships, as regulated by Marpol Annex III.
Safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, establish …
a dictatorial regime on board.
a cooperative and informative atmosphere on board.
sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for joint departmental use and consultation in case of emergency.
safeguards against all identified risks.
Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How?
By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships.
By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers Messroom.
By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility and command flow chart.
By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities for each functional area.
According to ОРА 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve underwater recovery?
Group III.
Group V.
Group IV.
Group I.
Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil are a major source of air pollution?
Sulphur, carbon.
Nitrogen, oxygen.
Carbon, oxygen.
Hydrogen, nitrogen.
Under ОРА 90 shipboard pollution containers should be capable of recovering at least … barrels of oily waste.
55.
20.
30.
12.
The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is …
an international pollution law.
an equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78.
United States legislation.
only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf.
Under ОРА 90, the term «Qualified Individual» means ……..
An English speaking person available on a 24 hour basis, located in the United States, authorised by the owner to activate the vessel’s Response Plan.
A Project Scientist with exceptional qualifications.
A pollution clean-up specialist appointed by the US Coast Guard and the Environmental Protection Agency.
The owner or the operator of the ship.
One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to …..
enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution incident.
restrict the trade of foreign nations.
create an international pollution regime.
limit the access of tankers to US waters.
ОРА 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of ….
the occurrence of the oil spill.
the call out.
reaching the pollution scene.
the go ahead signal from the Coast Guard.
The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to …..
diesel and kerosene fuels.
petroleum oils.
petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.
black oil.
Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include …….
being a member of the Board of the Company.
having overall control over all company departmental heads.
monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each ship.
final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities.
Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person?
A university degree.
Twenty years seagoing experience.
A master’s certificate.
Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM Code.
Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental protection policy?
Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the implementation as well as encouraging perception of ownership.
Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for pollution.
Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy.
Ensure that copies of the Company’s policy are given to all shipboard personnel.
When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives, the focus is on ….
economy.
finance.
prevention.
response to accidents.
Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives and should include, among other things …
methods to lower the lifeboats.
measures to mitigate identified risks.
efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
The Company should carry out ………………. to verify whether safety and pollution prevention activities comply with the Shipboard Management System.
inspections by third party consultants.
external safety audits.
drydock Inspections.
internal safety audits.
Penalties under the law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be …
imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.
imposed by all countries, the severity depending on where the violation occurs.
in all cases most severe.
It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions?
I, II.
I, III.
I, IV, V.
III, IV.
There are 6 Annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by …….
I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
I = Garbage. II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk. VI = Oil.
Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with …
the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers.
the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues.
the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages.
the handling and discharge of garbage.
Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention training program?
I, II, V, VII.
II, III, IV, VI.
I, IV, VI, VII.
I, III, V, VI.
To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions?
I, III, V.
I, II, III.
I, II, V.
II, IV, VI.
Pick 3 operations from this list which, when conducted on tankers, may lead to a pollution incident?
I, V, VI.
I, III, V.
II, IV, V.
II, III, VI.
When starting to ballast on non-SBT tankers there is potential for pollution, in that oil remaining in cargo piping may backflow to the sea via the sea chests. Which of these preventative measures should be taken?
II, IV.
I, V.
III, IV.
III, V.
There is potential for pollution when starting to take ballast on non-SBT tankers, because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this, which notice should be placed on the ballast pump?
START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION.
ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP.
FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST.
START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED.
What type of pump is the pump «P»?
A centrifugal pump.
A piston pump.
A gear or worm wheel pump.
A vane pump.
What type of centrifugal pump is shown here?
Multi-stage, medium speed.
Floating, self balancing, single stage.
Self priming, single stage, high speed.
Single stage, high speed.
For what type of load would a star/delta starter be employed?
A centrifugal pump.
A small compressor.
An air start compressor.
For very heavy loads composed of resistors.
What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P?
A centrifugal pump.
A gear pump or worm pump.
A piston pump.
A vane pump.
What type of pump would normally be fitted at position «P»?
A piston pump.
A centrifugal pump.
A vane pump.
A gear or screw displacement pump.
When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by ………….. to the purifier.
a plate clutch.
a magnetic coupling.
a centrifugal clutch.
a rotating coupling.
What is shown here?
A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.
A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.
A seawater, basket suction strainer.
A centrifugal filter.
What is the principle in which oil/water separation takes place in this cascade tank?
By separation frames.
By directional change and centrifugal action in triple-action.
By acceleration through chambers.
By acceleration and gravitation.
Which force is acting to separate water from oil in this separator?
Centrifugal force.
Gravitational force.
Kinetic energy.
Chemical potential.
Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right?
On the cylindrical surface of the bowl.
On the bottom of the bowl.
On the top separation plate between oil and water.
In between the discs.
What type of pump is the distillate water pump, item N° 7, and at what pressure is it discharging the liquid?
Vane pump, under pressure.
Centrifugal pump, under vacuum.
Centrifugal pump under pressure.
Vane pump, under vacuum.
When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with ………..
the suction valve closed.
the discharge valve closed.
throttled suction valve.
throttled discharge valves.
If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour × height in metres) it is usually due to …..
cavitation of the impeller.
excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
condition of the ball bearing.
condition of the pump housing.
What are the two main items in this drawing?
A compressor and an electric motor.
An electric motor and a screw pump.
A hydraulic motor and a pump.
A centrifugal pump and an electric motor.
What is the component shown here?
A centrifugal pump.
A rotor screw pump.
A piston pump.
A screw compressor.
What type of pump is shown here?
A piston pump.
A screw pump.
A centrifugal pump.
A vane pump.
What is the component shown in this drawing?
A Screw pump.
A Centrifugal compressor.
A Reefer compressor.
A Centrifugal pump.
What ensures that no sea water droplets are carried with the inert gas while the gas is washed and cooled in the scrubber tower?
The gas dryer unit.
The regenerator.
The demister units.
The centrifugal traps.
Inert gas blowers are …
paddle type low speed blowers.
reciprocating type blower units.
low speed type centrifugal fans.
turbine type centrifugal blower fans.
Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because …
danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor, various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing explosion within the purifier.
purifier bowls revolve at very high speed generating great centrifugal forces, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.
A «venturi» tube would normally be found in ….
a centrifugal pump.
an eductor.
a reciprocating pump.
a globe valve.
A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming …
primarily to lubricate the shaft seals.
due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller.
to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure.
in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line.
Which of these conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
Vapour pockets formed in the suction flow stream.
Rough casing of volute surfaces.
Worn wearing rings.
Heavy fluid in the flow stream.
A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the ….
water seal pipe is plugged.
pump is not primed.
seal ring is improperly located.
impeller is flooded.
The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to ….
closely observe the pump discharge temperature.
close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure.
momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure.
use a clamp-on ammeter and compare the readings with past records.
Which of these statements explains how a vacuum is created by an eductor?
Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.
A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.
A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle.
When operating with a negative suction head, which of these types of pumps will require priming?
Reciprocating.
Centrifugal.
Rotary.
Gear.
If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to …
vent the casing.
close the discharge.
tighten the packing.
reprime the pump.
Which of these statements is correct concerning the starting of centrifugal pumps?
They should always be started with the discharge valve closed.
They should always be started with the discharge valve opened.
A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction.
They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed.
Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by ……
cavitation.
electrolysis.
abrasion.
corrosion.
Why should an electronic digital meter be used to measure voltage in electronic circuits?
Because it’s easier to read.
Because it’s not affected by interference.
Because the voltage for electronic circuits can only be sensed by an electronic meter.
Because the input resistance of the meter is high enough not to affect the circuit under test.
What does the word «TOXIC» mean?
A radioactive substance.
A bone in the lower part of a human’s back.
A poisonous substance.
An electronic device used on ships.
What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a horizontal line through it) of the drawing indicate in an automation schematic diagram?
A pneumatic instrument.
An electronic instrument.
An instrument fitted in a central panel.
An instrument fitted in the main control console.
What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System are shown here?
Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve.
Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.
Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve.
Temperature controller, indicator pneumatic control valve.
The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass valves are ……..
electronic controlled valves working in tandem.
electronic controlled valves working in opposition.
pneumatic controlled valves working in opposition.
pneumatic controlled valves working in reverse.
Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional integrating controller?
Rf.
R1.
R2.
R3.
The LSU‘s (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow, level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and digital transducers. What is a digital transducer?
A Digital transducer gives a continuous signal, example 0-100 mV.
A Digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog transducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi.
A Digital transducer works on AC voltage.
A Digital Transducer gives a direct «on» or «off» signal and involves logic transducers.
How often should the operation of a boiler safety valve be checked?
At each annual survey.
At each dry dock.
At regular intervals.
Only when the electronic checking system fails.
Which of these portable fire extinguishers are found on the Bridge, in the Radio Room and in the Engine Control Room, because they are extremely effective with fires involving live electrical and electronic equipment?
Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
Foam.
AFFF
Dry Chemical – Dry Powder.
What do the letters ERIRB stand for?
Enhanced Plotted Information Radio Broadcast.
Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.
Extremely Powerful Immersed Rescue Boat.
Electronic Precision Illuminated Radar Buoy.
What does the word «navigate» mean?
The method of finding the ship’s position.
The method for a vessel to sail from one place to another.
The shortest route between two ports.
An electronic position fixing instrument using satellites.
When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the FIRST step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is to …
set the meter to the lowest range.
check the voltage supply from the power source.
remove the suspected component.
check the current flow through the circuit.
What are the four main components of an ECDIS?
A computer, printer, scanner, and display screen.
A computer, screen, electronic charts and radar.
A computer, electronic charts, display screen and speaker.
A computer, electronic charts, colour display screen and operator’s controls.
What is the difference between an ENC and other electronic charts?
An ENC has more navigational features than any other electronic chart.
An ENC is an officially approved vector electronic chart.
An ENC is an officially approved raster electronic chart.
An ENC is easier to view than other electronic charts.
In addition to a commitment to safety and a well trained and experienced crew, what is the key factor in helping to reduce accidents?
Use of a single language on board.
A management style appropriate to today’s technology.
Tours of duty not exceeding six months duration.
The most up-to-date electronic equipment in the Engine Room and on the Navigation Bridge.
An EPIRB is used on life boats after abandoning ship, what is the EPIRB?
Electronic Positioning Instrument and Receiving Device.
It is a smoke generator used to indicate the position of a vessel on fire.
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon.
Emergency Receiving Beacon.
How does an ECDIS in RCDS mode trigger an alarm about a navigational hazard?
Information on the possible hazard has to be entered into the system by the operator.
Such hazards can be pre-set automatically to trigger an alarm.
The potential hazard and location has to be entered electronically into the ECDIS.
The ECDIS system in RCDS mode is not capable of triggering an alarm.
What do the letters GPS refer to?
Great Polar Services. That is an electronic navigation system using the latest technology available to the shipping industry.
An electronic chart display.
Global Positioning System. A global positioning service.
Geodetic Position System. A positioning and chart correcting service.
How can an ECDIS operator know if part of his electronic chart is based on unofficial data?
The suspect section is marked in red.
The suspect section may have hatching around it.
The suspect section should flash.
The suspect section will have «unofficial» written across it.
How does an ECDIS operator ensure the electronic chart in use is on the same scale as other sensor information being input?
By checking the scales on each item in operation and adjusting them to match the ENC or RNC.
The ECDIS should provide an indication if there is a scale mismatch.
The ECDIS will not accept sensor information on a scale different to the electronic chart.
By adjusting the scale of the ENC or RNC to match those of the sensors.
What is the EPIRB?
Electronic Positioning Instrument and Receiving Device.
It is a smoke generator used to indicate the position of the boat in distress.
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon.
Emergency Receiving Beacon.
If you are using an unofficial electronic chart how would your system be classified?
As an ECS.
As an ECDIS.
As an RCDS.
As a SENC.
What is an EPIRB?
An electronic positioning instrument and receiving device.
A smoke generator used to indicate the position of a ship or boat in distress.
An electronic emergency position-indicating radio beacon.
An emergency receiving beacon.
What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit containing electronic components?
The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will consume.
The components in the circuit may be destroyed.
The wrong internal resistance may be shown.
The connections between components will show a high insulation value.
What is the EPIRB?
Electronic Positioning Instrument and Receiving Device.
It is a smoke generator used to indicate the position of the boat in distress.
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon.
Emergency Receiving Beacon.
What is another name for a calibration ring?
Range ring.
Variable range marker.
Electronic bearing marker.
Expand center.
You are required to order 1 year’s supply of refrigerant compressor oil and you estimate that consumption will be 480 litres in that time. If there is already an open drum of 180 litres on board, what will you order?
One drum × 205 litres + 5 pails × 20 litres.
Two drums × 205 litres.
15 pails × 20 litres.
24 pails × 20 litres.
For what type of load would a star/delta starter be employed?
A centrifugal pump.
A small compressor.
An air start compressor.
For very heavy loads composed of resistors.
Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor?
Forced sea water cooling.
Open free flow sea water cooling.
Forced fresh water cooling.
Free flow fresh water cooling.
Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30,0 bar. What class of compressor could this be?
A service air compressor.
An instrument air compressor.
A working air compressor.
A starting air compressor.
When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler «CW» operated?
During normal running to keep the temperature constant.
In the case of a cooler tube leaking.
In cold climates to avoid moisture.
When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings.
This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor. After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity?
7 seconds.
12 seconds.
14 seconds.
Between 7 and 12 seconds.
When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed?
So the pumping action can blow the drains through.
To avoid the safety valves blowing.
To avoid air blowing in the bilges.
To prevent the compressor from tripping.
Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open?
To hear that it is delivering pressure and the unloader is working.
To get rid of all the dirt inside.
To blow clear any moisture from the compressor discharge.
To avoid overloading the electric motor.
On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
It keeps the suction valves open.
It keeps the suction valves closed.
It keeps the delivery valves open.
It keeps the delivery valves closed.
What is the function of item «PC»?
Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid.
Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle.
Pressure Container activating automatic pressure release valve.
Piston Controller activating compressor piston movement.
What is item «U» and how does it act on item «S»?
Item «U» is the uplifter of the air bottle’s safety valve.
Item «U» is the upper pressure limit valve activating the solenoid.
Item «U» is the unloader lifting the compressor suction valve.
Item «U» is the activator for the safety release valve.
In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assembly fitted?
Refrigeration compressor.
СO2 compressor.
Service air compressor.
Oil-free instrument air compressor.
What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly?
To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.
To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.
As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.
All of these options.
In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping piston «P» made?
Chrome plated.
Slotted chromium.
Plain cast iron.
Carbon.
What parameter is controlling the capacity control system of this domestic refrigerating compressor?
Tie temperature in the refrigerated rooms.
The temperature and back-pressure of the condenser.
The suction pressure of the compressor.
The discharge pressure of the compressor.
Why is there an oil separator «OS» fitted as shown here?
Because Freon absorbs oil and it needs to be separated.
To separate the oil dragged with the Freon from the compressor.
To separate oil during compressor start-up.
To collect the oil before stopping the compressor.
If during your watch the air-conditioning compressor cuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to check immediately?
If the accommodation vent fan has tripped.
The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped.
That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser.
Ice formation on the evaporating unit.
You are notified that it is getting hot in the accommodation and the air conditioning is not working. What do you check immediately?
If the aircon compressor is still running.
If suction and discharge pressures on the compressor are normal.
If the accommodation vent fans are running.
If there is sufficient refrigerant in the system.
Which main air compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles?
Main air compressor N° 1.
Main air compressor N° 2.
Main air compressor N° 1 or N° 2.
Main air compressor N° 1 and N° 2.
During manoeuvring with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors?
N° 1 and N° 2 compressors on «AUTO».
One compressor on «AUTO», the other on «MANUAL».
N° 1 and N° 2 compressor on «MANUAL».
Both compressors started at the local start position as required.
If during your watch the air-conditioning compressor cuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to check immediately?
If the accommodation vent fan has tripped.
The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped.
That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser.
Ice formation on the evaporating unit.
You are notified that it is getting hot in the accommodation and the air conditioning is not working. What do you check immediately?
If the aircon compressor is still running.
If suction and discharge pressures on the compressor are normal.
If the accommodation vent fans are running.
If there is sufficient refrigerant in the system.
Which main air compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles?
Main air compressor N° 1.
Main air compressor N° 2.
Main air compressor N° 1 or N° 2.
Main air compressor N° 1 and N° 2.
During manoeuvring with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors?
N° 1 and N° 2 compressors on «AUTO».
One compressor on «AUTO», the other on «MANUAL».
N° 1 and N° 2 compressor on «MANUAL».
Both compressors started at the local start position as required.
What are items «NR» fitted after the compressors?
Demisters.
Oil separators.
Safety valves.
Check valves.
What is item «M» fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor (IAC)?
An oil separator.
An automatic drain valve.
A moisture separator.
A drain valve.
Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in excess of 8.5 bar. Which of the causes listed below is NOT a possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve?
Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position.
Setting of cut-in/cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective.
Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck.
Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers.
If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylene pressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to what should they be connected?
The oxygen and acetylene bottles.
Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.
Gas bottles depending on the material to weld.
Safety valves.
When igniting the welding torch, how would you proceed?
Open acetylene, ignite, then adjust flame with oxygen.
Open oxygen and acetylene, then ignite.
Open acetylene, ignite, open oxygen then adjust flame.
Ignite whilst controlling acetylene, open oxygen, adjust flame.
How should oxygen and acetylene bottles be transposed?
In a safety net, well secured.
In a special provided stand with clamps.
With the caps secured by gastight tape.
In an upright position.
Depending on the plate thickness to be cut you should increase …….?
the acetylene flow.
the oxygen flow.
the oxygen and the acetylene flow.
the nozzle size.
Which of these gases would carry this sign?
Hydrogen.
Acetylene.
Propane.
Argon.
One of the gases, important for life, in the air that we breathe is called …
chlorine.
acetylene.
hydrogen.
oxygen.
Which gas is NOT commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate?
Propane.
Acetylene.
Natural gas.
Helium.
Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder?
170 bar right hand thread black colour.
170 bar right hand thread blue colour.
15 bar left hand thread maroon colour.
7,5 bar left hand thread red colour.
How should oxygen and acetylene bottles be transported?
In a safety net, well secured.
In a special provided stand with clamps.
With the caps secured by gas-tight tape.
In an upright position.
Depending on the plate thickness to be cut you should increase …….?
the acetylene flow.
the oxygen flow.
the oxygen and the acetylene flow.
the nozzle size.
Which of these gases would carry this sign?
Hydrogen.
Acetylene.
Propane.
Argon.
One of the gases, important for life, in the air that we breathe is called …
chlorine.
acetylene.
hydrogen.
oxygen.
Which gas is NOT commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate?
Propane.
Acetylene.
Natural gas.
Helium.
Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder?
170 bar right hand thread black colour.
170 bar right hand thread blue colour.
15 bar left hand thread maroon colour.
7,5 bar left hand thread red colour.
In the following gas flame temperatures, which is the oxy-acetylene?
1 880 °С.
2 770 °С.
2 820 °С.
3 200 °С.
Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for use in a low pressure system?
The nozzle sizes are different.
The oxygen pressure differs.
The acetylene pressure differs.
Both gas pressures must be equal.
An acetylene welding cylinder is packed with charcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar by how many times will it absorb its own volume?
275 times.
325 times.
375 times.
425 times.
The safety features for a welded acetylene gas cylinder are?
Spring load relief valve.
Bursting discs.
Fusible plugs.
Gas loaded relief valves.
Sketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What is control N° 1 used for?
Acetylene control.
Pre-heat oxygen.
Mixing gases.
Cutting oxygen.
When at anchor, what should the OOW do if the vessel appears to be dragging her anchor?
Ask the chief engineer to start the engine.
Ask the bosun to check the anchor.
Call the master at once.
Any of the other options.
When taking over the engine room watch, what are you to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water?
The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer’s standing orders and check for any accumulation and its source.
Check accumulation source and piping and check when the bilges were last pumped.
Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verify whether bilges were pumped.
Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were last pumped.
The functional requirement for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement and maintain a system which includes the following …
maintain a correspondence system ship/shor.
issue the required Letters of Instruction. (Fleet Letters) to the ship.
a safety and environmental protection policy.
instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.
safe navigation and Rules of the Road.
instructions to masters and chief engineers.
office staff home telephone numbers.
contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited.
contact addresses of Flag State authorities.
Under the ISM Code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is ….
known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
known by all ships officers.
known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.
known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as well as shore based.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply?
That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer’s standing orders, number of generators on load.
That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptable.
That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel.
That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel.
What is the most important connection with the deck department for the chief engineer?
Maintenance of all safety appliances.
Maintenance of all cargo gear.
Knowledge of all sailing plans and cargo loading/discharging.
The ships speed and consumption.
Which of the following is the Chief Engineer’s obligation to calculate in advance for the next voyage and may not be delegated?
Fuel requirement.
Lub oil requirement.
Spares and consumable stores essential for the voyage.
All of these options.
When taking over the watch as duty engineer, what would you check first, before inspecting the plant condition?
The engine room bilges.
The log book entries from the previous watch.
The fire alarm monitoring equipment.
The Chief Engineer’s standing orders and special instructions.
If you are welding in the workshop, you must ensure in advance that the bridge is told and that …
the Chief Engineer is informed as well.
the emergency fire pump is started.
the fire extinguishers of the engine room platform are not expired.
the fire alarm for the workshop platform is switched off.
It is the Masters responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who should actually verify this on board?
The Master.
The Master and Officers.
The Designated Person.
The Chief Engineer.
Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that ………… should personally supervise all bunkering operations.
the Master.
the Chief Engineer.
the 2nd Engineer.
a responsible person.
Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations inclusive the titles. This information includes the names of the persons engaged in bunkering operations. Which persons?
The responsible person in charge, the engineer officer in charge of bunkering in the engine room and the person(s) assigned on deck.
The chief engineer, the engineer officer in charge in the engine room and the petty officer on deck.
The chief engineer, the duty engineer and the duty officer.
The responsible person in charge, the duty engineer, the engineer in charge of bunkering and the stand-by team on deck.
What documents and information will be required from a ship when filing an insurance claim?
As much as possible including deck & engine logs, master & c/e reports, letters of protest, surveyors report, repair receipts etc.
Underwriters only need log books & the master’s or chief engineer’s report, together with photographs of the damage.
Underwriters will require nothing from ship, but will decide claim solely on their surveyor’s report.
Nothing required directly from ship. Such claims usually settled at meeting in owner’s office on the principle of «Utmost good faith».
Whilst discharging cargo, if the oxygen content within the inert gas main is above the SOLAS 1974 recommendations and the Engine Room inform you that they cannot reduce it what would your actions be?
Call the master and continue with cargo operations.
Stop all cargo operations.
Call the chief engineer and continue with cargo operations.
Continue with cargo operations.
The person in charge of the day to day running of the engine room is most often ……….
the second engineer.
the watchkeeping engineer.
the chief engineer.
the junior engineer.
To ensure a continuous routine check of the machinery, which of the following is carried out?
The watchkeeper reports to the chief engineer every hour.
A verbal report is made to the chief engineer after the working day.
An official document called the engine room log is completed at regular intervals.
The engineering watchkeeper is trusted to carry out this task without recording the fact.
When taking fuel oil bunkers the start and stop times must be entered in the …
ship’s official leg book.
engine room log book.
Chief Engineer’s fuel records.
Oil Record Book.
If welding repairs are being carried out in the workshop, you must inform in advance the duty deck and engineer officers, and that …
a «permit to work» form is completed and the chief engineer informed.
the fire team is alerted and standing-by.
the safety officer is told and he checks all safety aspects.
a «permit to work» form is completed and the workshop fire alarm is switched off.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the correct bunker grades have been loaded?
The supplier’s representative.
the Chief Engineer.
The Ship’s Master.
The Shipowner’s Representative or Agent.
Why might the Chief Engineer decide to slow the main engine in rough sea conditions?
To conserve fuel.
To prevent the engine overspeeding.
Because of increased cylinder wear.
To prevent damage to the thrust bearing.
If a vessel causes pollution at sea, who is held responsible?
The ship’s Master only.
The ship’s owner and the ship’s Master.
The ship’s Master and the person who causes the pollution.
The Chief Engineer.
What instructions would you issue to the watchkeeping engineer in the case of a main engine malfunction?
Ease the load on the engine and inform the Chief Engineer.
Stop the engine and inform the Chief Engineer.
Inform the bridge watch keeper and then stop the engine.
Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the correct bunker grades have been loaded?
The supplier’s representative.
the Chief Engineer.
The Ship’s Master.
The Shipowner’s Representative or Agent.
In particularly rough sea conditions which of the following problems must most concern the Chief Engineer?
Bilge high level alarms sounding.
Fuel being contaminated with sludge.
Fuel tank low level alarms sounding.
Fluctuating auxiliary boiler water level.
The 1st Engineer says: if a hook shows signs of excessive wear, it can be built up to return to the correct clearances. The Chief Engineer says: worn hooks should always be replaced with new genuine parts. Who is correct?
The 1st Engineer.
The Chief Engineer.
Neither of them.
Both of them.
Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance. If so:
the Master should be consulted.
Head office should give permission.
a proper risk assessment should be undertaken first.
the Chief engineer should be consulted.
Who is responsible for drawing the fuel oil sample required by Annex VI?
The Chief Engineer.
The ship’s agent.
The fuel oil supplier or their representative.
The ship’s Master.
Who is responsible for your personal safety in the Engine Room?
I am responsible for my own safety. (Others may also rely on you.)
The Chief Engineer is solely responsible for the safety of persons working in the Engine Room.
The ship’s safety officer is solely responsible for my safety on board.
The superintendent is responsible for my safety.
Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by:
the Master.
the Chief Engineer.
the Officer of the Watch.
the Officer appointed by the Master.
What must be done when machinery is not to be used?
An entry should be made in the log book.
In all cases, warning notices must be posted at or near the controls.
The lubricating oil must be drained off.
The Chief Engineer must be informed.
Which of the following is NOT a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre?
A vessel servicing a navigation buoy.
A tanker underway refueling a warship.
A minesweeper engaged in minesweeping operations.
A loaded VLCC navigating in a fairway.
Why is there an indicating flap «IF» (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling water buffer tank?
To indicate if the pump is running.
To indicate that the engine is running.
To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.
To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops?
The level will decrease.
The level will increase.
The level will at first decrease but increases again.
Nothing will happen.
What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank?
To collect the system oil in use.
To act as a buffer tank of the system oil in use.
As supply source of the system oil.
All of these options.
When taking over the engine room watch, what are you to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water?
The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer’s standing orders and check for any accumulation and its source.
Check accumulation source and piping and check when the bilges were last pumped.
Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verify whether bilges were pumped.
Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were last pumped.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers?
That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.
That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.
The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch.
The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in addition to the supply capacity?
Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system.
Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off.
Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system.
The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of water is normal.
Select the correct sentence.
I were always worked on oil tankers.
I am always worked on oil tankers.
I have always worked on oil tankers.
I was always worked on oil tankers.
Select the correct sentence.
I care in the tankers because they are dangerous.
I am careful on tankers because they are danger.
I careful on tankers because they are dangerous.
I am careful on tankers because they are dangerous.
What is the pipe shown in the picture?
It is a tank vent pipe.
It is a mast raiser.
It is a wing tank filling pipe.
It is a sounding pipe.
What does the picture show?
Lifeboat fire extinguishers.
Enclosed lifeboat emergency air supply.
Breathing apparatus air tanks.
СO2 supply in case of fire.
What should be observed when you make a lubrication check of the engine forced lubrication oil system?
The level in the oil sump tank.
The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.
Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train.
That the oil pressure on the top position manometer is correct.
Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment?
Cargo shifting, collision, explosion.
Fire, flooding, grounding.
Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing.
Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering.
What part is the de-airating tank?
Number 1.
Number 4.
Number 6.
Number 7.
What is the purpose of part number 6?
To prevent an increase in water pressure.
To be an extra expansion tank.
To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system.
To measure difference of pressure before and after the cooler.
What is the purpose of the expansion tank?
To store extra water.
To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.
To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.
To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
What is part number 1 called?
The drainage tank.
The expansion tank.
The service tank.
The settlement tank.
What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use?
Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1 500-3 500 sec redwood 1).
Marine diesel.
Distillate diesel.
Gas oil.
When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve «D»?
At 08,00 hr and 17,00 hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.
Every 4 hours.
Twice a day.
Once a day.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system?
The expansion tank.
The construction of the buffer tank.
The air cushion in the buffer tank.
The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps.
Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree °C? Study the picture.
The blending unit BU.
The blending unit controller BUC.
The unit H.
The HFO daily tank.
What do you call the tanks in which heavy fuel oil is stored on board?
Heavy fuel oil tanks.
Heavy fuel oil daily tanks.
Heavy fuel oil settling tanks.
Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks.
What do you call the gate valves «MP», «MS», «AP», «AS» located on deck?
Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves.
Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.
Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves.
Heavy fuel oil tank valves.
How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker?
Via suction valve «S», the transfer pump, to discharge valve «D».
Via main bunker valve «BV» to transfer pump «Tp».
Via own pumps «P1» and «P2», the main bunker valve «BV» to valve «D».
Via own pumps «P1» and «P2» to transfer pump «Tp».
What is the name and function of the gate valve «BV»?
Main bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from Engine Room.
Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold.
Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank.
Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks.
What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
A well constructed ship which has been equipped with fire fighting equipment prescribed by the SOLAS Convention.
An effectively trained emergency party led by an experienced senior officer with the necessary STCW Advanced Fire Fighting certificate.
A small close-knit group working together as a team effective leadership & understanding the importance of: Coordination, Communication & Control.
An experienced Master who holds valid Advanced Fire Fighting course certificates.
What is the most aspect of communication with the deck department?
Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.
Executing of orders from the bridge.
Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.
Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.
Regardless of the size of an oil spill in US waters, the following must always be notified …
the US Coast Guard National Response Center.
the local US Coast Guard captain, Classification Society, Salvage and Fire Fighting Contractors.
the Oil Spill Response Contractor, Owner or operator, Flag State authorities, P & I club representative.
the IMO Coordination Centre.
Under ОРА 90, a tank vessel owner or operator must make contractual arrangements with …
oil spill clean-up contractors.
the National Transportation Safety Board.
fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.
oil spill clean-up contractors and fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.
Under OPA 90, salvage, fire fighting and lightering contractors must …
be members of the US Salvage Association.
be under contract to the US Coast Guard.
be contractually prearranged by Owners or Operators.
have tractor tugs available.
Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company?
By the state of cleanliness on board.
By judging the morale of the officers and crew on board.
Through interviewing officers and crew.
By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator.
What does AFFF stand for in relation to fire fighting?
Anti Fire Frothing Foam.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam.
Active Fire Finishing Foam.
Aqueous Fire Fighting Foam.
What information is found on a ship’s fire plan?
The action to take if you heard the fire alarm.
The duties of each crew member in case of fire.
The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment.
The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire.
Which fire fighting system is the most efficient and with least side effects in the event of a fire in the engine room?
The central foam extinguishing system.
The sprinkler extinguishing system.
The central CO2 extinguishing system.
The powder extinguishing system.
What action should be taken immediately in the event of an oil tank spill when loading?
Notify the terminal and stop loading.
Reduce the level in the tank by gravity transfer to a slack tank.
The spilled oil on deck should be recovered and action taken to stop any further spillage.
Stand by the fire fighting equipment in case of ignition.
How often would you expect a full inventory to be made of the fire fighting equipment lockers?
Every month.
Once a voyage.
Every 3 months.
Annually.
In an emergency with risk for total loss of the ship, the Master orders the support party to lower the life boats to embarkation level and prepare them in readiness to abandon ship. When should abandonment be undertaken?
As soon as your instinct tells you that fire fighting is no longer effective.
As a first priority on hearing the alarm.
As a last resort on orders from the Master.
Immediately after all persons have reported to their muster stations.
Carbon dioxide used as a fire fighting agent …
is lighter than air.
is heavier than air.
has the same weight as air.
disperses quickly in air.
If the accommodation is filling with smoke and fumes, you should:
get out of the space without delay; if necessary by crawling on hands and knees.
look for the nearest fire extinguisher, and take immediate fire fighting action.
search for others who may be in urgent need of assistance.
switch off any electrical appliances before making an escape from the area.
All fire fighting features are there to protect the vessel and its crew. What in your view is the most important measure one can take to maintain their effectiveness?
Overhaul of the fire fighting equipment each time the vessel is in dry dock.
Appointing a safety officer with responsibility for maintenance and testing.
Maintaining the validity of the vessel’s Safety Management Certificate as required under the SOLAS regulations.
Regular inspection, maintenance and testing.
What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
A well constructed ship which has been equipped with fire fighting equipment prescribed by the SOLAS Convention.
An effectively trained emergency party led by an experienced senior officer with the necessary STCW Advanced Fire Fighting Certificate.
A small close-knit group working together as a team effective leadership & understanding the importance of: Coordination, Communication & Control.
An experienced Master who holds valid Advanced Fire Fighting course certificates.
What is the most sensible approach to gain control of an engine room fire?
Evacuate the engine room without delay and release the fixed installation.
Co-ordinate fire fighting efforts by effective Command and Control. The most sensible approach is «one shot and out».
Monitor the spread and intensity of the fire for a few minutes before deciding best action.
Instruct everyone to go to their muster stations.
What would you expect a ship’s «fireman’s outfit» to consist of?
The officer in charge, a Petty Officer and sufficient ratings to effectively handle two fire-hoses simultaneously.
Personal Equipment (such as protective clothing, boots/gloves, rigid helmet, safety lamp, axe) and Breathing Apparatus with fireproof lifeline.
The emergency escape route from the Engine Room.
Whatever specialised «personal protective clothing» for fire fighting a company decides to supply to each vessel.
What is the responsibility of the Master and the emergency organisation when an incident arises?
To check that all fire fighting equipment is in good working order and that the crew are fully trained in emergency response to the incident.
To establish reliable communication links.
To review the emergency response plan.
To assess, with minimum delay, the best possible action to take when the incident arises.
What do the words «starvation», «smothering» and «cooling» refer to in relation to fire fighting?
They are the words describing various fire detection systems.
The means to remove one or more of the three elements of combustion.
The conditions under which a fire may start.
The names of fire fighting equipment.
If, after hearing the fire alarm in the engine room, you cannot see smoke or flames you should:
switch off the false alarm and remember to re-set the alarm system.
inspect the alarm system and try to repair it.
follow fire emergency procedures.
release the fixed fire fighting smothering system.
Complete the following sentence. The design of a ship’s fire fighting installation will provide sufficient power for …
one water jet to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew.
two water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew.
three water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew.
four water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew.
What is the danger associated with thick smoke?
Fire fighting extinguishers are less efficient.
Flames spread faster in a smoke filled area than in clear air.
Fixed fire fighting installations can’t be used.
It is easy to lose your bearings and move closer to danger rather than away from it.
The ship’s fire fighting installation should provide sufficient power for water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew. How many jets should it cope with?
one.
two.
three.
four.
What is the most important aspect of communication with the Bridge?
Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.
Executing of orders from the bridge.
Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.
Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.
What is the responsibility of the Master and the emergency organisation when an incident arises?
To check that all fire fighting equipment is in good working order and that the crew are fully trained in emergency response to the incident.
To review the emergency response plan.
To assess, with minimum delay, the best possible action to take.
To establish reliable communication links.
When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?
As soon as the electric motor is started.
As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge.
As soon as point «Z» moves.
As soon as the telemotor pump is started.
During normal operations, the command rod «C» pushes point «Z» and the control rod off centre so that the «HS» pumps start pumping and the steering gear moves. When will it stop moving?
When the command rod «C» stops moving.
When the command rod «C» moves in opposite direction.
When the trunion point «Y» pushes point «Z» back to its original position.
When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command.
When pumping cold oil with this pump, what precaution would you take?
Start/stop the pump frequently.
Throttle the discharge valve.
Screw back the spring pressure on the pressure regulating valve.
Throttle the suction valve.
If when in port there is an urgent need to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do?
Authorise pumping the bilges over the side via the oily water separator.
Instruct the watchkeeper to lower the bilges only during night time.
Issue strict instructions that the bilges must only be discharged to a shore tank or barge facility.
Instruct the watchkeeper to pump bilges to the dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook.
The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of the ……….
pipe plunger.
suction valve.
overflow valve.
fuel cam.
The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service, in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations, shall include ….
a complete survey of all piping.
a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks and slop tanks.
a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials, in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil filtering and separating systems.
Concerning the designing and construction of Machinery Space Oily Residue Tanks (Sludge Tanks) what requirements, besides capacity, need to be met?
All engine room overflows and leakage tanks must drain into them.
They must be capable of being pumped overboard through a 15 ppm separating system.
They must have cleaning facilities and arrangements to discharge to reception facilities.
They must have steaming out and pumping out connections fitted.
Every new oil tanker which is required to be provided with SBT or fitted with COW shall comply with which of the following items concerning pumping arrangements and piping?
I, II, V, VII.
I, IV, V, VI.
II, III, IV, VII.
I, III, V, VII.
Marpol states that a small diameter line is to be connected outboard of the manifold for the purpose of pumping pipe and cargo pumps drainage to shore receptives. What does «connected outboard of» mean?
A connection other than the cargo manifold.
A connection fitted adjacent to the ships sides for connection to shore lines or to barges.
A connection on the downstream side of the manifold valves on PS and SB.
A connection separate from the cargo manifold located more outboard on PS and SB.
The Record of Construction and Equipment has a chapter about «Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges)». What information is recorded in this chapter?
The location and capacity of the sludge tanks.
The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements.
The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open deck sludge connection.
The total tank capacity and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks.
Clean ballast may be discharged ….
by pumping through the bottom sea chest.
by pumping directly through any overboard discharge line.
by pumping only through a discharge line which is connected to an operational oil content monitor.
only by gravity.
Which of these statements represents the advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps?
The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump.
Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight.
Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating pumps.
Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid, while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump.
According to SOLAS – sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be used as fire pumps provided ….
they are not normally used for pumping oils.
they are ready for use as a fire pump at any time.
they can be started from a position outside the engine room.
they are fitted with an automatic start connected to the fire alarm.
Which type of pump would be most suitable for pumping large quantities such as oil cargoes?
Reciprocating pumps.
Screw pumps.
Gear pumps.
Centrifugal pumps.
Positive displacement pumps are …
not self priming pumps.
self priming pumps.
driven by compressed air.
used for pumping «large» capacities.
What would happen if a positive displacement pump were to be started with the discharge valve closed?
Damage would be incurred by the pumping element.
The pressure relief would open and circulate fluid to the suction side.
It would not take any load until the valve was opened.
The motor would trip on overload.
What action would be taken to prevent overload on first starting a gear pump when pumping cold oil?
Start/stop the pump frequently.
Start the pump with valves closed and gradually open.
Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.
Throttle the suction valve until pressures are normal.
When pumping out clean ballast tanks the most important consideration is …
not to run the ballast pump dry.
to maintain the ship’s upright position.
to monitor the oil content.
to maintain the ship’s trim.
While the vessel is alongside in port, the engine room bilges are filled due to maintenance work on the engine cooling system. How would you deal with this situation?
Authorise pumping the bilges over the side via the oily water separator and note in the Oil Record Book.
Instruct the watchkeeper to lower the bilges only, using the separator over the side.
Organise the bilges to be pumped to a shoreside reception facility or barge.
Instruct the watchkeeper to pump bilges into the bilge holding tank.
When in rough weather the UMS engine room bilge alarm keeps sounding though the level is not excessively high, what would you suggest the watchkeeper does?
Lower the bilge level by pumping to the bilge holding tank.
Raise the bilge level and cancel the alarm.
Disconnect the alarm and inspect the bilge regularly.
Pump the bilges over the side.
When starting an air compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed?
So the pumping action can blow the drains through.
To avoid the safety valves blowing.
To avoid air blowing in the bilges.
To prevent the compressor from tripping.
What is the first check you would carry out if difficulty is encountered when pumping bilges with the suction gauge showing a high vacuum?
Check the oily/water separator filters are not blocked.
Check that there is water in the bilge well.
Check that there are no other bilge well valves open.
Check suction strainers are clear and suction valves open.
When a tank is being emptied and the liquid level becomes low it is common practice to …
speed up the pump maintain suction.
slow down the pump to maintain suction.
run the pump at a constant speed until it trips.
stop pumping before the pump loses suction.
Where should the hands of the first aider be placed when doing heart compressions?
In the middle where the collar bone (Clavicle) joins the breast bone (Sternum).
Over the left nipple on the chest.
At the end of the breastbone.
About 4 cm nearer the head then the lower end of the breastbone (sternum).
What would you do if someone’s clothes catch fire?
Go and find a fire hose.
Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
Telephone the bridge.
Shout for help while getting the first aid kit.
What damage could occur if first aiders hands are placed at the tip of the sternum during heart compressions?
The liver might be torn leading to severe internal bleeding.
The ribs might be cracked.
The patient may vomit as his stomach is squeezed.
The lungs might be punctured leading to severe loss of breath.
Abdominal Thrust is the name of a technique used to attempt to force air out of a choking casualty’s lungs. How is this technique performed?
Lay the casualty on a hard surface, press firmly and rapidly on the middle of the lower half of the breast bone.
Stand close behind the casualty, clench your fist and place it in the centre of upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with your other hand and pull inwards.
Use the Abdominal Thrust tool found in the first aid box.
Bend the casualty forward and apply hard blows to the centre of the back.
The ABC rule is important for first aiders to know. What does ABC stand for?
Airway-Breathing-Communication.
Attitude-Blood-Communication.
Alcohol Blood Content.
Airway-Breathing-Circulation.
What is the rhythm of resuscitation should two first aiders use when working as a team?
3 compressions after every 1 inflation.
7 inflations before every 5 compressions.
5 compressions after every 1 inflation.
10 compressions within every 3 inflations.
What is the rhythm when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation in combination with chest compressions by one first aider only?
15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations.
10 compressions followed by 3 full ventilations.
20 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
5 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
What kind of first aid should be given to a person with frostbite?
Heat the affected areas with hot-water bottles.
Rub the affected area with alcohol.
Apply hand or body heat to the affected parts skin-to-skin. (e. g. frozen hand in person’s opposite armpit).
Give the person a cigarette.
What would you do if you see a man fall into a cargo hold?
Raise the alarm.
Get the first aid kit.
Go to the man and try to assist as much as possible.
Get a stretcher and rope.
Which one of these must be provided in a galley first aid box?
Coloured waterproof dressings.
Nail Clippers.
Aspirin.
Antiseptic cream.
In case of an abandoning ship in cold conditions you should use your survival craft’s immersion suits and TPAs. What is a TPA?
It is an immersion suit to be worn by the occupants of the life saving craft.
Thermal underwear for use by the occupants of the inflatable raft in cold climates. It serves to maintain body temperature.
It is a first aid kit.
A waterproof cover enclosing a person to reduce heat loss from the wearer’s body.
What would you do if you saw a person fall into a cargo hold?
Raise the alarm.
Get the first aid kit.
Go to the person and try to assist as much as possible.
Get a stretcher and rope.
What is a «Thermal Protective Aid» (ТРА)?
It is an immersion suit worn by the rescue boat crew members.
It is thermal underwear for use by boat crews in cold climates. It serves to maintain body temperature.
It is a first aid kit.
It’s a waterproof cover enclosing a person to reduce heat loss from the wearer’s body.
What does medical waste refer to?
All waste generated by a hospital.
Used «sharps» and needles, dressings, etc. from the ship’s hospital.
Soiled linen from the ship’s hospital.
Out of date medicines kept in the ship’s first aid locker.
Which statement does not belong in the list? When an accident occurs, priority is given to:
the safety of the individuals involved and those who may be assisting them.
finding out who caused the incident or accident.
if necessary, stopping the work and making the scene of the accident safe for others to enter.
arranging help and any necessary first aid/medical attention.
What is the heliograph used for?
To check the outside temperature.
As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun.
To warm the emergency food rations.
As a first aid burns dressing.
In cold conditions you should use your survival craft’s immersion suits and TPAs. What is a TPA?
It is an immersion suit to be worn by the occupants of the life saving craft.
Thermal underwear for use by the occupants of the inflatable raft in cold climates. It serves to maintain body temperature.
It is a first aid kit.
A waterproof cover enclosing a person to reduce heat loss from the wearer’s body.
What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and personnel transferred to new assignments related to safety and protection of the environment on board your ship?
They should have at least five years experience in the job before being assigned safety related duties as defined in the STCW convention.
Safety related and environmental protection related duties must only be given to qualified watch keeping officers.
They must be given proper familiarisation with their duties.
They must be in possession of a valid first aid certificate.
What is the heliograph used for when you are in a lifeboat or liferaft?
To check the outside temperature.
As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun.
To warm the emergency food rations.
As a first aid burns dressing.
How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective?
By fitting a voltmeter over one phase.
By fitting lamps over the three phases.
By fitting lamps crossed over two phases.
By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases.
Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralleled with another?
If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the yeneidluis have been connected.
Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the yenefdloi can be damaged.
The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.
What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship?
440 Volt and 220 Volt.
Electric motors and lighting circuits.
2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.
4 × alternators, 2 × transformers.
In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced?
In the excitator.
In the sliprings.
In the rotor.
In the stator.
How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled?
By the alternator speed.
By the excitation current in the rotor.
By the excitation current in the stator.
By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.
How many sliprings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator?
Two.
Four.
Three.
Six.
If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got?
Two.
Four.
Six.
Eight.
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to …………..
the speed of the alternator.
the output current of the alternator.
the output voltage of the alternator.
the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each alternator (kVAR)?
The power throttle of the driving units.
The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator.
The excitation current.
The temperature of the windings due to load distribution.
Name the three conditions which must prevail to parallel one alternator with another?
Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency.
Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase.
Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.
Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal.
Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line to the distributors should fail and the insulation break through?
The undervoltage relay.
The short circuit protection.
The reverse current trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switch breaker?
The overload trip.
The reverse current trip.
The undervoltage/overvoltage trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power factor load, example induction motors?
The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt.
The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt.
What are the prime movers that can be used to drive medium to large size industrial alternators?
Internal combustion engines.
Steam turbines.
Gas or hydraulic turbines.
Any of the other options.
The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254,34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage?
254,34 Volt.
230 Volt.
147 Volt.
440 Volt.
Two 3 phase 4 160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load of the system is 1 050 kW with power factor 0,75 lagging. If alternator N° 1 is carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging …………
the Power Factor of alternator N° 2 is lagging 0,7352.
the Power Factor of alternator N° 2 is lagging 0,7064.
the Power Factor of alternator N° 2 is lagging 0,6914.
the Power Factor of alternator N° 2 is lagging 0,658.
Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3 phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A is 60 kW, 90 % power factor and the load of B is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load?
472,8 Amps.
458,8 Amps.
429,8 Amps.
416,8 Amps.
It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i. e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur?
Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs.
Where two generators are running in parallel.
Where three generators are running in parallel.
When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input.
Alternator temperature indicators often giving readings in degrees Fahrenheit. If a reading is 80 degrees F, how many degrees Celsius is this?
23,8.
26,6.
29,2.
32,7.
How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working?
By lowering the generator frequency.
By raising the generator frequency.
By raising the alternator voltage.
By lowering the alternator voltage.
What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit on the generator circuit breaker?
It trips the alternator by under voltage.
It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage.
It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage.
All of these options.
If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device will activate?
The preferential trip.
The low frequency trip.
The overspeed trip.
The under voltage trip.
The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting?
0,5-1 %.
2-3 %.
4-6 %.
6-7 %.
If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse Power Relay’s pick up setting be?
5-10 %.
10-15 %.
8-10 %.
5-12 %.
The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ….
an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.
an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.
a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.
a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify on the electrical main switch board?
The alternator on load, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency.
The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the condition of the transformers, the non-essential consumers.
The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of the overload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available.
Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems.
The best way of testing the «stand-by» function of the emergency diesel alternator is by …
switching on the «test run» button on the emergency diesel switchboard.
starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies.
causing a total black-out on the ship, for example in drydock or when time is available in port.
by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.
What safety protection measure should be taken when connecting a multimeter to an unknown voltage source?
Set the multimeter to DC.
Set the multimeter to AC.
Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range.
Set the multimeter to DC and highest voltage range.
What is «chatter» in a safety valve?
The first leakage before the valve opens.
A failure of a safety valve to reseat.
A metallic hammering noise.
A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.
Radar maintenance should be carried out in accordance with procedures in the ….
operator’s manual.
ship’s log.
radar log.
safety manual.
Apart from ensuring navigational safety at anchorage, what should the OOW do?
Have all bridge equipment cleaned.
Check that the engineer on watch is in the engine room.
Monitor the VHF for orders for the vessel.
Direct the lookout to do maintenance work.
What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump?
To keep the oil temperature constant.
To absorb pump vibrations.
To keep the oil pressure constant.
To act as a high pressure safety valve.
Select the correct sentence.
Safety are the best policy at all times.
Safety were the best policy at all time.
Safety the best policy at all time.
Safety is the best policy at all times.
When the ship is in the dry dock, a ____________________ must be worn.
safer helmet.
saver helmet.
safety helmet.
safe helmet.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment?
Cargo shifting, collision, explosion.
Fire, flooding, grounding.
Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing.
Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering.
The SMS should include procedures ensuring that ………… are reported to the company, investigated and analysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution prevention?
illness and injury.
cargo operations and ballast operations.
non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations.
crew changes.
The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems associated with alternatives should be part of the Company’s maintenance plan. Example of tests are ……
operation of alarms and emergency shutdowns.
pre-arrival and predeparture tests.
emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors).
Any or all of the other options.
The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the …
Ship Management Manual.
Safety Management Manual.
Shipboard Instruction Manual.
Ship Maintenance Manual.
What is the function of valve «PR» in this fuel circuit?
A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop.
A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.
A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature.
A constant pressure regulating valve.
When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed?
So the pumping action can blow the drains through.
To avoid the safety valves blowing.
To avoid air blowing in the bilges.
To prevent the compressor from tripping.
What is item «U» and how does it act on item «S»?
Item «U» is the uplifter of the air bottle’s safety valve.
Item «U» is the upper pressure limit valve activating the solenoid.
Item «U» is the unloader lifting the compressor suction valve.
Item «U» is the activator for the safety release valve.
What do you call this device?
A safety lifting valve.
An overpressure blow-off valve.
A straight non-return valve.
A scavenge air valve.
What is the function of the low pressure cut-out fitted on the same manometer line as manometer «SM»?
As safety shut-down device. Inspection and reset are required.
Purely as cut-in/cut-out device by low capacity. No reset required.
As safety power tripping device. Solenoids «S» will also close.
As alarm device only without shut-down function.
What is the function of the high pressure cut-out fitted on the same manometer pipe as manometer «DM»?
As safety cut-out with additional alarm function. Manual reset required.
As operational cutout when condenser pressurised prolonged.
As electrical overload and alarm, auto reset.
As alarm device only.
If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylene pressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to what should they be connected?
The oxygen and acetylene bottles.
Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.
Gas bottles depending the material to weld.
Safety valves.
How should oxygen and acetylene bottles be transported?
In a safety net, well secured.
In a special provided stand with clamps.
With the caps secured by gas-tight tape.
In an upright position.
What is item «B» in this steam layout drawing?
The 7,0 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 3,0 bar pressure reducing valve.
The 7,0 bar manifold safety valve.
The 3,0 bar manifold safety valve.
What is item «C» in this drawing of the steam lay-out?
The 7,0-3,0 bar steam reducing valve.
The main steam reducing valve.
The main safety blowoff valve.
The 3,0 bar safety blow-off valve.
What is item «D» in this drawing of a steam lay-out?
A steam pressure reducing valve.
A steam balancing valve.
A blow-off valve.
A safety relief valve for the low pressure manifold.
What are items «NR» fitted after the compressors?
Demisters.
Oil separators.
Safety valves.
Check valves.
Which of the fittings listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air bottle?
A thermometer.
A pressure gauge.
A safety valve.
A drain valve.
What is item «AD» in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle?
An air drain.
An air safety discharge valve.
An air dryer.
An air pressure safety device.
Suppose you find that the safety-valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in excess of 8,5 bar. Which of the causes listed below is NOT a possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve?
Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position.
Setting of cut-in/cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective.
Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck.
Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers.
What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code?
An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO.
The International Ship Management Association’s Code for navigational safety.
The International Code for accident prevention and safe working practices.
The international code for transportation of cargoes safely on board ships, as regulated by Marpol Annex III.
What is meant by a «Safety Management System»?
A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on board ship.
The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by documented training methods.
A documented shipboard system which lists each and every known shipboard hazard to safety, health and the environment.
A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to implement the company safety and environment protection policy.
Under the ISM Code, what is meant by a non-conformity?
Lack of comfort leading to health risks.
Not conforming with safe working practices which may lead to accidents.
A situation which indicates the nonfulfillment of a specific requirement.
A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
You are required to order 1 year’s supply of refrigerant compressor oil and you estimate that consumption will be 480 litres in that time. If there is already an open drum of 180 litres on board, what will you order?
One drum × 205 litres + 5 pails × 20 litres.
Two drums × 205 litres.
15 pails × 20 litres.
24 pails × 20 litres.
Freon is being phased out gradually as a refrigerant. Why?
Because it is too expensive.
Because it is being replaced by more efficient refrigerants.
Because it has a damaging effect on the Earth’s ozone layer.
Because under certain conditions it is toxic.
What is the state of the refrigerant which flows from the condenser to the solenoids and the expansion valves?
It is hot and undercooled.
It is under condenser pressure and undercooled.
It is below condenser pressure and condensed.
It rises above the condenser pressure and decreases in temperature.
You are notified that it is getting hot in the accommodation and the air conditioning is not working. What do you check immediately?
If the aircon compressor is still running.
If suction and discharge pressures on the compressor are normal.
If the accommodation vent fans are running.
If there is sufficient refrigerant in the system.
If refrigerant gauges are calibrated in Absolute Corresponding Temperature, can these gauges be used for any refrigerant in any refrigerating system?
Can be used for Freon 12 or Freon 22 only.
Can be used for any refrigerant.
Can be used for any refrigerant except AMMONIA.
Are calibrated for only one refrigerant.
An abnormally hot suction line in a refrigerating plant may be due to …………
insufficient refrigerant.
too much refrigerant.
too much oil in circulation.
high latent heat of evaporation.
In reefer installations the cooling effect is produced by lowering the pressure of the refrigerant so that ………….
the liquid will be able to absorb heat from the surroundings.
the liquid will be able to expand to gas.
its boiling point is reached and it will be able to absorb heat.
it will be able to be compressed again and give off heat.
A refrigerant gives up heat when it ……….
evaporates.
condenses.
vapourises.
boils.
Refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by …
the pressure change of the refrigerant.
the boiling refrigerant changing to a vapour.
increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.
lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.
The greatest decrease in the temperature of a refrigerant is at the …..
expansion valve.
evaporator.
condenser.
receiver.
A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to …
separate oil from the refrigerant.
store the refrigerant.
cool the hot gases.
condense the refrigerant.
The temperature of a refrigerant is highest just before it enters the ……
receiver.
condenser.
evaporator.
king valve.
The cooling effect in a refrigeration system is produced by ………..
lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.
increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.
boiling the refrigerant.
pressure changes to the refrigerant.
Excess refrigerant in a refrigeration system is normally removed from the ………..
discharge side of the evaporator.
suction side of the system.
compressor crackcase.
charging connection of the system.
High latent heat is desirable in a refrigerant so that ……..
smaller compressors can be used.
smaller pipes can be used.
it will boil at low temperature.
a small amount of refrigerant will absorb a large amount of heat.
If the compressor discharge in a refrigeration system becomes frosted, the probable cause is …
the expansion valve being improperly set.
the refrigerant flooding back.
the compressor cuts out too frequently.
a faulty king valve.
In a refrigeration system, a fluid that serves only as a heat carrier is called the …….
condensing refrigerant.
secondary refrigerant.
vaporizing refrigerant.
primary refrigerant.
What is the function of the expansion valve?
To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator.
To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.
To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.
To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator and to reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.
What is the function of the evaporator?
Transferring heat from the substance being cooled.
Evaporating humid air in the room or area being cooled.
Act as a heat exchanger between the hot refrigerant and the cooling medium.
To recycle used refrigerant.
What is the function of the compressor?
To compress hot air.
To pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.
To compress the refrigerant.
To compress hot air and to pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.
What is significant about an indirect refrigeration system?
It measures temperature indirectly.
It uses a secondary refrigerant like brine to do the cooling.
It has an indirect circulation of cooling medium.
It uses ammonium instead of Freon as cooling gas.
What is the function of the dehydrator in a refrigeration system?
To reduce risk of corrosion in the brine tank.
To take away humid sediments in the suction valve.
To absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant.
To reduce moisture in the compressor house.
If the refrigerant compressor was running continuously with a high discharge pressure, what could be the problem?
Dirty condenser.
Low refrigerant charge.
Air in the refrigerant.
Compressor bursting disc ruptured.
What would be the first indication of an incipient problem with the provision room’s refrigerating plant?
Softening of the deep freeze contents.
Rise in temperatures of the provision rooms.
Increased refrigerant compressor running hours.
Increase in evaporator return temperatures.
On completion of the fitting of a new air conditioning, refrigerant compressor, the plant must be inspected by …
A surveyor from the ship’s registration authority.
A surveyor from the classification society.
An appointed marine surveyor.
A senior ship’s engineer.
What action would you take if the watchkeeper reported that the air conditioning system filter/drier unit was icing up?
Check that the sea water cooling was satisfactory.
Check that there was sufficient refrigerant in the system.
Isolate the filter/drier unit, open up and fit a new element.
Check that all outside doors and ports were secured.
If, in a refrigerant system, all of the pressures and temperatures are normal, what would be indicated by bubbles in the sight glass?
Low refrigerant charge.
Air in the refrigerant.
Expansion valve jammed shut.
Condenser requires cleaning.
If the refrigerating plant required constant addition of refrigerant, the first place to check for gas leakage would be at the …
expansion valve.
room evaporator units.
compressor crankshaft seal.
compressor discharge valve.
If the air conditioning compressor suction and delivery valves are closed for test and the compressor is losing gas pressure rapidly, which of the following would you check for refrigerant leakage first?
The unloader linkage seals.
The main isolating valve glands.
The gauge pipe connections.
The main shaft seal.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of a restriction at the expansion valve?
Oil being carried over with the refrigerant.
Blockage in the filter/drier unit.
Moisture in the system.
Insufficient gas charge.
A ship’s electrical system is usually the so-called «insulated neutral» type. What does this mean?
The system’s zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator.
The system is totally insulated from the ship’s hull.
The system is totally insulated from the ship’s 220 V distribution system.
The system does not have a neutral point.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause?
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on standby has been splashed with salt water.
Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor?
Copper.
Brass.
Silver.
Steel.
An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4 400 W. What is the resistance of the heater?
220 Ohm.
11 Ohm.
22 Ohm.
110 Ohm.
Two electrical heaters both marked 220 Volt and 2 200 W are connected in series to a 220 Volt supply with a 10 A fuse. What will happen?
The fuse will blow.
The heaters will produce twice their normal heat output.
The heaters will produce half of their normal heat output.
The heaters will be damaged as the voltage is different from their marked voltage.
An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the «over current» relay, What action would you take?
Increase the current setting on the «over current» relay.
Replace the «over current» relay.
Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.
Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.
Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.
Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.
All of these options.
Electric current is defined as the flow of electrons through a conductor. This is measured as …..
voltage.
resistance.
inductance.
amperage.
What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal?
A transducer.
A reducer.
A transformer.
A pressure rectifier.
An earth fault on an electrical motor can be defined as an electrical connection between its wiring and its ……..
circuit breaker.
shunt field.
metal frame work.
fuse.
After putting the windlass in gear, what must you do next?
Start the windlass.
Open the brake.
Ring the anchor bell.
Start the electrical convertor.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there?
That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.
The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle valves are closed.
That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles are closed.
That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off.
What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 HZ)?
About 2 300 RPM.
About 1 500 RPM.
About 1 150 RPM.
About 870 RPM.
The pressostat shown in the picture controls the cut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the pump’s electric motor would this be connected?
The main contactor.
The timer.
An auxiliary relay.
An overload relay.
Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralleled with another?
If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected.
Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.
The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.
Which of the two transformers will provide an electrically insulated voltage E2 from the source voltage E1?
Number 1.
Number 2.
Neither.
Both.
On a small diesel engine how would pump «P» be driven?
By «V» belt from the crankshaft.
By an electric motor.
By gears driven from the crankshaft.
By gear drive from the main output shaft.
Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open?
To hear that it is delivering pressure and the unloader is working.
To get rid of all the dirt inside.
To blow clear any moisture from the compressor discharge.
To avoid overloading the electric motor.
How is pump «P» driven from the purifier?
By V-belt.
By electric motor.
By shaft drive with replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase.
By direct gear drive from the purifier crankcase.
When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by ………….. to the purifier.
a plate clutch.
a magnetic coupling.
a centrifugal clutch.
a rotating coupling.
What is the function of the high pressure cut-out fitted on the same manometer pipe as manometer «DM»?
As safety cut-out with additional alarm function. Manual reset required.
As operational cut-out when condenser pressurised prolonged.
As electrical overload and alarm, auto reset.
As alarm device only.
What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here?
Pressure to open contact.
Pressure to close contact.
Pressure to cross-connect contact.
Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how it is connected.
When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?
As soon as the electric motor is started.
As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge.
As soon as point «Z» moves.
As soon as the telemotor pump is started.
This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1 or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit?
A Wheatstone Bridge.
Two double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids.
Two Potentiometers with amplifier relays.
A booster aggregate.
The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By what mode might it be actuated?
By hand steering.
By push button steering.
By automatic steering via the auto-pilot.
By any of these steering methods.
The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the steering gear. What moves this potentiometer?
The telemotor.
The rudder angle indicator.
The rudder position via the trunion connection.
The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump.
On what equipment should the wrench shown bottom right be used?
On bolts and nuts.
On broken studs.
On large diameter pipes and shafts.
On electric motor couplings.
The tools shown here are …..?
engineer’s tools.
electrician’s tools.
duty engineer’s and watchkeeper’s control room tools.
welder’s tools.
Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions would you say is the most important?
Plug the scuppers.
Place smoking and naked light restrictions and notices.
Exhibit International Code В flag and red light.
Check over-side for pollution.
After bunkering when all the fuel oil tanks have been topped off, which of the listed procedures should be followed next?
The pressure vacuum relief valves should be reset.
The tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising.
The tanks should be marked with a bull stamp on the manifold filling valve.
All of these options.
Under ОРА 90 regulations each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or cargo oil transfer must be secured …
by locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line valves.
by securing the manual valves tight and padlocking the valve wheels.
with a blank flange.
with a cement box.
ОРА 90 – in the event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier…
to avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plate openings.
to contain small oil spills on the open deck.
to keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds.
ОРА 90 – most important in monitoring the loading of oil or the bunkering rate is …
to keep a close eye on the manifold pressure.
to keep close radio contact with the jetty/barge.
that tanks should be sounded very regularly.
that the remote control gauging system is to be observed.
Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that …………. should personally supervise all bunkering operations.
the Master.
the Chief Engineer.
the 2nd Engineer.
a responsible person.
Bunkering procedures for all ships require that ………. communication should be maintained with the shore/barge staff in charge of the transfer.
continuous.
frequent.
occasional.
intermittent.
Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch is informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because …….
the time needs to be recorded exactly.
he is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.
appropriate precautions have to be taken by the deck department.
the bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on stand-by.
Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations inclusive the titles. This information includes the names of the persons engaged in bunkering operations. Which persons?
The responsible person in charge, the engineer officer in charge of bunkering in the engine room and the person(s) assigned on deck.
The chief engineer, the engineer officer in charge in the engine room and the petty officer on deck.
The chief engineer, the duty engineer and the duty officer.
The responsible person in charge, the duty engineer, the engineer in charge of bunkering and the stand-by team on deck.
Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations. This information must include the following ….
the specific gravity of the oil and the level at which bunker tanks are to be closed.
the ventilation and overflow system of each tank and the bunker rate in tons per hour.
the procedures for topping off tanks and the bunker slow down rate.
the bunkering rates, procedures for topping off tanks and the level at which bunker tanks are to be closed.
Written information must be available each time bunkering operations are carried out. This should include information about reporting oil spills and provide contact details for which of these organisations?
II, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX.
I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII.
I, III, IV, V, VIII, IX.
III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX.
During all cargo oil loading/discharging or bunkering operations as well as during oil transfers, oil spill equipment should be ……
kept near the deck manifold and be used in accordance with the chief officer’s instructions.
readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use by the assigned deck party.
kept in the emergency headquarters to be used in accordance with the instructions of the responsible person.
kept in the vicinity of the cargo transfer or bunker transfer hoses near the manifold connections and be used if required by the emergency party.
Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common causes of oil pollution. Which five of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow?
I, II, III, VI, VII.
II, III, V, VI, VII.
I, III, IV, V, VI.
II, IV, V, VI, VII.
Topping off during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical operation. Which five of these precautions or actions must be taken?
I, II, III, V, VIII.
I, III, V, VI, VII.
II, IV, VI, VII, VIII.
II, III, V, VI, VIII.
After oil cargo loading/discharge or bunkering, draining of shore lines, hoses and loading arms may be done under pressure provided which of these precautions are followed?
I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII.
I, II, III, V, VII, IX.
II, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX.
II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII.
To which side of the tanker is the bunkering barge moored?
Starboard side.
Port side.
Left side.
Right side.
Which tanks must be empty before commencement of bunkering?
Settling tanks.
Double bottom tanks.
Daily service tanks.
Overflow tank.
What is the most effective method of establishing the correct quantity of bunkers delivered onboard?
Noting supplier’s tank gauge readings before and after bunkering.
Checking the flow meter reading before and after bunkering.
Sounding the supplier’s tanks before and after bunkering.
Obtaining an invoice from the supplier detailing the amount delivered.
When bunkering operations are complete, the hoses should be …
emptied into storage drums.
emptied by the supplier and blanked.
swung ashore vertically to prevent spillage.
flushed through with light oil before disconnecting.
Which of the sources listed is not one that is a concern in terms of oily water pollution?
A hose bursting.
Condensation from the charge air cooler.
Galley wastes.
A flange leaking during bunkering.
What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering?
Hydrogen sulphide.
Carbon monoxide.
Ammonia.
Methane.
What are most oil spills at sea caused by?
Collisions.
Overspills during bunkering.
Leaking barges.
Corroded oil drums.
What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?
A PT 100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.
A T 802 (Thermistor) probe.
A NiCr/NiAI – type K (Thermocouple) probe.
A mercury thermometer probe.
What does the picture show?
Fuel oil pipes.
Fresh water pipes.
Lagged pipes.
Exhaust pipes.
What does the encircled part of the picture show?
Engine cooling water intake.
Circular type advanced rudder.
Engine exhaust underwater discharge.
Propeller guard capable of vectoring thrust.
What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time?
The lights may be dimmed a little.
The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.
The generator may trip on overload.
Nothing special.
Which part is the exhaust gas receiver?
Number 1.
Number 6.
Number 7.
Number 8.
Which part is the exhaust valve?
Number 1.
Number 2.
Number 4.
Number 6.
What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only?
The engine is overloaded.
The main engine RPM is too high.
Faulty fuel injector.
Cooling water restriction.
Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by ….
a piston ring failure.
a burnt piston top.
a leaking exhaust valve.
All of the other options.
What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine?
A faulty fuel valve.
A cracked liner.
Rising scavenging air temperature.
Broken piston ring.
Exhaust temperature increasing on all main engine cylinders indicates …
The air system is fouled.
The exhaust system is fouled.
The scavenging ports are fouled.
Any of the these faults.
The turbo charger turbine wheel is rotated by ……..
pressured air supplied by blower number 10.
inlet air coming from the inlet filter.
exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.
any of the other options.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
When does the exhaust valve «EV» open?
When the piston is at bottom dead point.
When the piston moves upward.
At the end of the working stroke.
None of the other options.
Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger?
Constant pressure type.
Booster type.
Impulse type.
Split type.
Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the exhaust gas entering the exhaust gas turbocharger «ET»?
Under a vacuum.
Under high pressure.
Under slight overpressure.
Under atmospheric pressure.
How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?
In series with the cylinders.
In line with the cylinders.
In parallel with the cylinders.
In tandem with the cylinders.
What kind of tool is shown right bottom and into what does it fit?
A bar wrench/It fits into exhaust gas pipe fastening bolts.
An angle wrench/It fits into cylinder cover plugs.
A socket bolt wrench/It fits into Allen Bolts (Allen keys).
A torque wrench/It fits over nuts.
What type of boilers are fitted (one only shown) to feed this turbine installation?
Scotch type boilers.
Water tube boilers.
Cochran type boilers.
Exhaust dissipation boilers.
Of what is this finned pipe a part?
Of an exhaust gas boiler steam generator.
Of an exhaust gas boiler economiser.
Of an exhaust gas boiler superheater.
Of any of the other options.
How is this finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler fastened in the boiler wall?
It is caulked.
With a screwed coupling.
It is expanded.
It is welded.
How is the soot which will accumulate between the finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler removed?
By sand blasting in the drydock.
By high pressure water jet washing at 3 000 psi.
By chemical cleaning with pump in port.
Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port.
What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating unit?
Plug the pipe.
Plug the section/bank.
Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.
Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.
The exhaust steam line of one of the consumers shown in this drawing will not return via the atmospheric condenser but direct via a water trap to the hot well. Which one?
Viscorator.
Purifiers.
M. E. heating.
Laundry.
What kind of steam is feeding the astern turbine fitted on the same rotor as the LP turbine?
Steam from the main steam manifold via manoeuvring stand.
Exhaust steam from the high pressure turbine.
Reduced superheated steam via a pressure reducer.
Regenerated steam via resuperheater.
In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical power?
In part 2, die turboblower.
In the main engine.
In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.
In part 5, the scavenge air blower.
In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power?
In the main engine.
In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5).
In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1).
In the exhaust gas boiler.
In an «impulse type» exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine ….
are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold.
are driving only one single turbocharger.
are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.
are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold.
On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted?
On the exhaust gas boiler.
On the turbo blower.
On the scavenge air blower.
On the scavenge air manifold.
Why is it important that the exhaust gas boiler bypass flap to exhaust is operated when the main engine is running at reduced or manoeuvring speed on Heavy Fuel Oil?
To ensure proper firing of the engine.
To ensure starting of the engine.
To avoid backpressure on the engine at low speed.
To avoid corrosion in the exhaust gas boiler.
In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger via …
the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.
the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups.
a separate manifold for each turbocharger.
nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe.
There are 6 Annexes to MARPOL 73.78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by ……..
I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with …
the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers.
the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues.
the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages.
the handling and discharge of garbage.
According to Annex V of Marpol, no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception?
Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore.
Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore.
Paper metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore.
Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.
Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that, within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters …
you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm.
you cannot throw anything overboard.
you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float overboard.
you cannot throw plastics overboard.
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float …
may not be thrown overboard at any time.
may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
may be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.
may be thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal, glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than ……. in size.
5 mm.
30 mm.
25 mm.
10 mm.
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics, including incinerated ashes from plastic products which may contain toxic or heavy metal residues …
cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore.
cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore.
cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore.
cannot be thrown overboard at any time.
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside ………. miles offshore.
25.
12.
3.
10.
Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on board ships. From this list, choose the three ways?
I, II, IV.
II, III, V.
I, III, VI.
I, IV, V.
Information about the maximum weight and volume per charge recommended for your incinerator can be found in:
MARPOL Annex V.
the type approval certificate.
the Garbage Record Book.
the manufacturer’s manual.
Which MARPOL Annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
Annex I.
Annex II.
Annex IV.
Annex V.
The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection at all times and kept for a minimum of …
six months.
one year.
two years.
five years.
When garbage is incinerated you must record:
the date and time.
the category of garbage.
an estimate of the quantity in cubic metres.
all the above.
Which of the types of garbage listed is not biodegradable?
Food wastes.
Paper.
Disposable plastic cups.
Wood.
For how long after the date of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?
1 year.
2 year.
3 year.
4 year.
How many different categories of garbage are indicated on the form in the Garbage Record Book?
6 and «other».
5 and «other».
10.
3 and «other».
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the discharge of garbage?
II.
VI.
V.
IV.
What should be the first priority on board to control waste?
To log each waste discharge carefully in the Garbage Record Book.
To order fewer stores.
To incinerate all waste.
To cut down on ship generated waste.
For how long must the Garbage Record Book be kept on board?
1 year.
2 year.
3 year.
25 years.
Tank cleaning will require the vessel’s officers to consult …
The Certificate of Fitness.
The Ballast Water Management plan.
The Garbage Management Plan.
The P&A Manual.
The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection at all times and kept for a minimum of …….
six months.
one year.
two years.
five years.
What type of pollution does Annex VI of MARPOL deal with?
Sewage pollution.
Oil pollution.
Garbage pollution.
Air pollution.
Which of the types of garbage listed is not biodegradable?
Food wastes.
Paper.
Disposable plastic cups.
Wood.
For how long after the date of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?
1 year.
2 years.
3 years.
4 years.
How many different categories of garbage are indicated on the form in the Garbage Record Book?
6 and «other».
5 and «other».
10.
3 and «other».
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the discharge of garbage?
II.
VI.
V.
IV.
What should be the first priority on board to control waste?
To log each waste discharge carefully in the Garbage Record Book.
To order fewer stores.
To incinerate all waste.
To cut down on ship generated waste.
For how long must the Garbage Record Book be kept on board?
1 year.
2 years.
3 years.
25 years.
Tank cleaning will require the vessel’s officers to consult …
The Certificate of Fitness.
The Ballast Water Management plan.
The Garbage Management Plan.
The P&A Manual.
The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection at all times and kept for a minimum of …….
six months.
one year.
two years.
five years.
What type of pollution does Annex VI of MARPOL deal with?
Sewage pollution.
Oil pollution.
Garbage pollution.
Air pollution.
What type of pollution does Annex II of MARPOL deal with?
Harmful substances carried by sea in package form.
Garbage pollution.
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
Oil pollution.
What type of pollution does Annex I of MARPOL deal with?
sewage.
oil.
garbage.
air.
Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil are a major source of air pollution?
Sulphur, carbon.
Nitrogen, oxygen.
Carbon, oxygen.
Hydrogen, nitrogen.
There are 6 Annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by …….
I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
As from 19 May 2005, which of the following documents are mandatory for diesel engines falling within ANNEX VI requirements …
Engine International Air Pollution Certificate (EIAPPC).
An approved Technical File.
The Engine Record Book.
All the above.
Under MARPOL ANNEX VI Regulation 6, after survey, a ship shall be issued with a …
Polluting Emissions Record Book?
Atmospheric Emissions Prevention Certificate?
International Air Pollution Prevention Certificate?
Air Pollution Certificate?
Which MARPOL ANNEX deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Air Pollution?
Annex III.
Annex IV.
Annex V.
Annex VI.
After 19 May 2005, a number of documents relating to the engine will be mandatory for qualifying vessels built after 1 January 2000. Which of those listed is not required?
An Engine Record Book.
An approved Technical File for each qualifying engine.
Engine International Air Pollution Prevention Certificate (EIAPPC).
An IMO engine type approval certificate.
MARPOL Annex VI concerning Air Pollution from ships specifies a global cap on the sulphur content of fuel oils, the proposed figure is …
1,5 %.
2,5 %.
4,5 %.
5 %.
What type of pollution does Annex VI of MARPOL deal with?
Sewage pollution.
Oil pollution.
Garbage pollution.
Air pollution.
Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are «Non-Conformities»?
Damage.
Defects, malfunctioning.
Deficiencies.
Any one of the other options.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly?
The nozzle is worn out.
The flapper is broken or distorted.
Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle.
Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP).
What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier?
Gasket N° 8 blown.
Diaphragms N° 7 bursts.
Valve stem N° 6 defective.
Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.
If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switch breaker?
The overload trip.
The reverse current trip.
The undervoltage/overvoltage trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
What is the advantage of having a steam turbine driven inert gas fan on a tanker fitted with an auxiliary steam plant?
A steam driven turbine fan does not easily trip when there is a malfunction on the inert gas plant.
A steam turbine fan can give higher speeds.
A steam turbine driven fan creates initial load on the boiler facilitating inert gas production.
A steam turbine fan is less costly to maintain and more easy to operate.
Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by …………
losses in oil coolers.
malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricating oil system.
excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defective piston/scraper rings).
any of the other options.
The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by ………
the viscosity of the fuel being high.
the wind and current being favourable.
the wind and current holding the vessel back.
poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.
Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger?
Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.
Worn bearings on the turbocharger.
Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.
Dirty rotor blade and nozzle ring.
With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What may be the cause?
Dirty nozzle ring.
The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.
The diffuser ring is damaged.
Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.
You are experiencing major surging in the fresh water cooling system. What could be the reason?
The cooling water temperature is too low.
You have a cracked liner, or cover.
The expansion tank is empty.
The fresh water-circulating pump is malfunctioning.
The header tank boils up quickly in the main engine jacket water cooling system. What is the most likely reason?
The engine is overloaded.
There is a cracked cylinder liner, or cover.
The expansion tank level is too low.
The jacket water circulating pump is malfunctioning.
When the watchkeeper checks the control room of a UMS engine room the turbo blower rpm have increased overnight. What could have caused this?
The fuel viscosity too high.
Favourable wind and current.
Adverse wind and current.
Poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.
What instructions would you issue to the watchkeeping engineer in the case of a main engine malfunction?
Ease the load on the engine and inform the Chief Engineer.
Stop the engine and inform the Chief Engineer.
Inform the bridge watch keeper and then stop the engine.
Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause.
If the governor of the diesel engine driving an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker?
The overload trip.
The reverse current trip.
The under voltage trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
On a direct air start, medium speed diesel engine, the engine turns but will not start. What is the most likely problem?
Low cylinder compression.
Governor malfunctioning.
Air pressure too low.
Air start valves sticking.
What is the most common cause of failure of reciprocating bilge pumps?
Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.
Leaking piston rod gland.
Debris holding suction or delivery valves open.
Malfunctioning priming pump.
In a reciprocating pump what would NOT cause of loss of vacuum?
Priming pump malfunction.
Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.
Leaking suction/delivery valves.
Leaking piston rod gland.
What should be the first action on discovering a main engine malfunction?
Inform the Chief Engineer.
Inform the Bridge watch keeper.
Stop the engine and attempt to rectify the fault.
Slow the engine, check pressures & temperatures.
What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
Malfunction of the electrical motor.
Pump no longer pumping liquid.
Malfunction of the pump.
Tank being transferred into is full.
If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker?
The overload trip.
The reverse current trip.
The under voltage trip.
The high/low frequency trip.
What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel?
To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.
To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.
To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.
To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.
What does this picture show?
Automatic falls release arrangement.
A boathook ready for use.
The fall block on a gravity davit.
The boarding arrangements for a modern lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
The master gyro compass.
The engine control console.
The emergency steering position in the steering flat.
The automatic pilot console.
Who has the responsibility for the watch during a sea voyage if the master comes on to the bridge?
The master automatically assumes the responsibility for the watch.
The master can only take over the watch responsibility if he tells the OOW that he is taking over.
The master and the OOW will share the responsibility whenever the master is on the bridge.
The two persons shall consult each other as required.
Altering the range scale may automatically change the ….
anti-clutter settings.
pulse length.
amplification of echoes.
transmitted frequency.
What does the picture show?
The controls of an enclosed lifeboat.
The bridge automatic pilot.
The controls of a ship’s crane.
The controls of an open lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
Discharging bulk cargo with an automatic bucket.
Discharging bulk cargo with a clamshell grab.
The end of a cargo conveyor discharge.
A bulldozer working in a cargo hold.
What are the parts marked «F»?
Fine filters.
Magnetic filters.
Automatic filters.
Any of the these.
What is the function of item «PC»?
Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid.
Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle.
Pressure Container activating automatic pressure release valve.
Piston Controller activating compressor piston movement.
Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle is completed and the purification of the oil restarts?
The overflow alarm.
The water seal alarm.
The oil high temperature alarm.
The oil high pressure alarm.
What is item «S»?
A mesh type strainer.
The sea suction valve of the pump.
A shut-off valve.
The automatic 15 ppm shut-down valve.
What is the function of the valves «PR» fitted between the Port and Starboard cylinders?
To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.
To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped.
To be opened to allow emergency steering.
To relieve excess pressure, absorbing shock and preventing damage.
The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By what mode might it be actuated?
By hand steering.
By push button steering.
By automatic steering via the autopilot.
By any of these steering methods.
How might this steering system be actuated?
By automatic gyro steering.
By push-button steering.
By hand steering.
By any of these.
What is item «M» fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor (IAC)?
An oil separator.
An automatic drain valve.
A moisture separator.
A drain valve.
On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted?
On the exhaust gas boiler.
On the turbo blower.
On the scavenge air blower.
On the scavenge air manifold.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on all engine room fresh water expansion tanks?
That the temperatures are normal and the tanks are not steaming up.
That the levels of the tanks are normal and if any abnormal additions during previous watches.
That the automatic filling or float systems are in good operational order.
That the chemical concentration of the water is correct.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the hot well of the condensate/feedwater system?
Whether correct level, no excess of make-up water being supplied and that there is no steaming up.
Whether the cooling water supply is sufficient and that the level is satisfactory.
Whether the heating coil is in operation and that the automatic filling valve is working to satisfaction.
Whether the filters are cleaned and that the chemical concentration of the water is correct.
Which are the parameters that steer the automatic level control system of the boiler shown here?
Water level and steam consumption.
Feedvalve and feed by-pass valve.
The level controller.
The level transmitter.
What is item N° 14 as shown here in this fluorescent lamp assembly?
The automate fuse.
The reset button.
The light switch.
The starter.
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to …
the speed of the alternator.
the output current of the alternator.
the output voltage of the alternator.
the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two valve motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working ranges. This is called ……. control.
feedback.
diverted.
split range.
separated range.
An automatically controlled Freon-12 compressor will stop when the …
expansion valve closes.
expansion valve opens.
solenoid valve closes.
solenoid valve opens.
Which type of valves are fitted as suction valves on the inert gas blower fans?
Automatic controlled butterfly valves.
Manually controlled butterfly valves.
Automatic controlled gate valves.
Manually controlled gate valves.
Which type of valves are fitted on the discharge side of the inert gas fan blowers?
Automatic gate valves.
Manual gate valves.
Automatic butterfly valves.
Manual butterfly valves.
How is the inert gas pressure controlled in the inert gas distribution line and relevant cargo tanks during discharge?
By adjusting the cargo discharging rate.
By adjusting the trim of the vessel.
By an automatic pressure control system.
By throttling of the boiler uptake valve.
How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically through the cylinder?
By the uniflow system.
By the reverse system.
By the turbocharger.
By the scavenge port shape.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure standby?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stem tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
What is the primary cause of scavenge air space fires?
Blow-by due to broken piston rings.
Insufficient cylinder lubrication.
Faulty injectors.
Excessive cylinder lubrication.
What is shown on the left side of the picture?
A triple hook chain lifter.
A cylinder head lifter.
A cylinder liner pulling chain.
An oil drum lifting chain.
What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only?
The engine is overloaded.
The main engine RPM is too high.
Faulty fuel injector.
Cooling water restriction.
What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine?
A faulty fuel valve.
A cracked liner.
Rising scavenging air temperature.
Broken piston ring.
Exhaust temperature increasing on all main engine cylinders indicates …
The air system is fouled.
The exhaust system is fouled.
The scavenging ports are fouled.
Any of the these faults.
If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen?
Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls.
Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls.
The engine cannot be started again.
The fuel pumps may be clogged.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?
In series with the cylinders.
In line with the cylinders.
In parallel with the cylinders.
In tandem with the cylinders.
What is indicated by position «I» at both of the cylinders?
Water inlet of Intercoolers.
Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers.
Water inlet of cylinders.
Water inlet of aftercoolers.
What are the units marked «C» fitted on both cylinders?
Aftercoolers.
Intercoolers.
Cylinder blocks.
Cooling water vessels.
What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly?
To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.
To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.
As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.
All of these options.
What is the function of the valves «PR» fitted between the Port and Starboard cylinders?
To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.
To act as automatic bypass valves when the steering gear is stopped.
To be opened to allow emergency steering.
To relieve excess pressure, absorbing shock and preventing damage.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?
In series with the cylinders.
In line with the cylinders.
In parallel with the cylinders.
In tandem with the cylinders.
What is indicated by position «I» at both of the cylinders?
Water inlet of Intercoolers.
Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers.
Water inlet of cylinders.
Water inlet of aftercoolers.
What are the units marked «C» fitted on both cylinders?
Aftercoolers.
Intercoolers.
Cylinder blocks.
Cooling water vessels.
What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly?
To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.
To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.
As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.
All of these options.
What is the function of the valves «PR» fitted between the Port and Starboard cylinders?
To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.
To act as automatic bypass valves when the steering gear is stopped.
To be opened to allow emergency steering.
To relieve excess pressure, absorbing shock and preventing damage.
Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible?
Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C.
Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D.
Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D.
Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D.
What kind of hammer is shown right side and for what is it used?
Sledge hammer/For all-purpose grudgingly and powerful hammering.
Heavy hammer/For use on large size forged ring spanners.
Moker hammer/To loosen or fastened cylinder head nuts.
Striking hammer/To loosen or fastening torque rings.
What kind of tool is shown right bottom and into what does it fit?
A bar wrench/It fits into exhaust gas pipe fastening bolts.
An angle wrench/It fits into cylinder cover plugs.
A socket bolt wrench/It fits into Allen Bolts (Allen keys).
A torque wrench/It fits over nuts.
What kind of tool is shown on the bottom left corner of the picture and when is it used?
A rod spanner/For cylinder cover tightening.
An extended spanner/When the nut is found frozen.
A hexagon fork spanner/To apply extra force when tightening.
A pinchbar spanner/When there is no side space available.
In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted?
Main engine scavenge air manifold.
Ventilation air ducts.
Air compressors cylinder heads.
Auxiliary diesel crankcase door explosion relief valves.
How is this type of valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor?
It is screwed into the valve space of the cylinder head.
It is secured to the cylinder head by bolts.
It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinder head.
It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head.
How is the valve shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the compressor?
No joint, both faces lapped to each other.
An O-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat.
A general purpose joint is fitted.
A copper gasket is fitted.
Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value?
To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.
To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.
To avoid misfiring and starting problems.
To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.
Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) required on this starting air compressor?
To absorb the large torsional forces (2 cylinder).
To absorb the vibrations due to high speed (900-720 RPM).
To accelerate evenly when starting.
To avoid stalling when drain and unloaders close.
Suppose the rated delivery pressure of this main air compressor is 25 bar. what would be the delivery pressure of the first stage cylinder?
12,5 bar.
15 bar.
8,3 bar.
5 bar.
Verification of the Master’s qualifications should be done firstly by ….
medical examination.
drug and alcohol test.
interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness.
confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention.
What does «STCW» mean?
Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping.
Standard training and conditions of work.
Standard training in conventional workplaces.
Safe training certificates for the workplace.
Under STCW regulations, what must each new crew member do before commencing assigned duties?
Read all posted notices/regulations carefully.
Be familiar with safety procedures.
Locate his working area and working clothes.
Report to the master for signing on the ship’s articles.
«Company» means an entity who has agreed to:
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed by the ISM Code.
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed only by the MARPOL Convention.
Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed by the STCW Convention.
None.
Which of the international regulations and industry standards listed is not part of the basis for SIRE inspections?
SOLAS.
STCW.
MARPOL.
SIGTTO.
What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
A well constructed ship which has been equipped with fire fighting equipment prescribed by the SOLAS Convention.
An effectively trained emergency party led by an experienced senior officer with the necessary STCW Advanced Fire Fighting Certificate.
A small close-knit group working together as a team effective leadership & understanding the importance of: Coordination, Communication & Control.
An experienced Master who holds valid Advanced Fire Fighting course certificates.
Which standard regarding watchkeeping is addressed by both the STCW Convention and the STCW Code, in the respective sections titled «fitness for duty»?
The promotion of the participation of woman in the maritime industry.
Training in crisis management.
Enforced rest periods and the arrangement of watch systems.
Minimum requirements for certification.
What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and personnel transferred to new assignments related to safety and protection of the environment on board your ship?
They should have at least five years experience in the job before being assigned safety related duties as defined in the STCW Convention.
Safety related and environmental protection related duties must only be given to qualified watch keeping officers.
They must be given proper familiarisation with their duties.
They must be in possession of a valid first aid certificate.
The law of the sea is embodied in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and the …
London Conventions of 1955.
STCW Convention of 1978 as amended in 1995.
United Nation Conventions of 1958.
Geneva Conventions of 1958.
What is the meaning of the word «Convention», as used for instance in SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW «Conventions»?
A Convention describes a party of delegates at a meeting.
A Convention is a treaty between States, which have agreed to be bound by it to apply the principles contained in the convention within their sphere.
A Convention explains maritime law based partly on generally accepted customary rules.
A Convention explains the enactment of national legislation giving effect to and enforcing its provisions.
Where would you look to find the properties and hazards of a gas carried on your ship?
Code of safe working practices.
STCW Code.
Ship’s chemicals register.
ICS cargo data sheet.
What is the rhythm of resuscitation should two first aiders use when working as a team?
3 compressions after every 1 inflation.
7 inflations before every 5 compressions.
5 compressions after every 1 inflation.
10 compressions within every 3 inflations.
Which of the following conditions would indicate that a casualty was dead?
Eyes are glazed and sunken.
Casualty is not moving.
Casualty is pale.
The skin is wet and clammy.
In the absence of a Doctor, how long should artificial respiration and heart compression be continued?
When the casualty has had fixed and dilated pupils for 15 minutes you should stop CPR.
Until the heart starts beating or the rescuer is unable to continue because of fatigue.
When the casualty turns pale and starts to go cold CPR can be stopped.
When the casualty shows no response to the CPR after 20 minutes, it is useless to continue.
What is the skin colour of a patient in shock?
Light blue.
Dark blue.
Pale or grey.
Green or purple.
What are the symptoms of someone about to faint?
The person has a red face and small pupils.
The person starts to talk a lot and seems hyperactive.
The person’s pulse is very fast and he/she is getting cold.
The person may be very pale and pulse is slow and weak.
What does the picture show?
An open lifeboat.
An open liferaft.
A dedicated rescue man overboard rescue boat.
An enclosed lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
A stored inflatable liferaft.
A container for storing lifejackets.
A lifeboat freshwater container.
A container for storing distress rockets.
What type of boat is in this picture?
An open freefall lifeboat.
A fast rescue boat.
A liferaft.
A totally enclosed lifeboat.
What is a gangway used for?
Loading cargo.
Getting into the vessel’s lifeboats or liferafts.
To allow safe access to the vessel.
For putting over deck cargo to allow access from the accommodation to the forecastle.
In addition to reducing drift, what other things does the sea anchor on a liferaft do?
Keeps the doors pointing into the wind.
Keeps the doors at right angles to the wind.
Allows the EPIRB to send a distress message.
Releases an orange dye marker into the water.
What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing the painter to a strong point?
Open the fiberglass case.
Inflate the liferaft.
Check that there is nothing in the sea below.
Untie the painter from the strong point.
After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next?
Jump into the water and swim to the container, then hold onto it.
Throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as possible.
Climb down the embarkation ladder and board the liferaft.
Pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft.
Why is it advisable to board a liferaft without getting wet if possible?
Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.
You might drink sea water which will make you more thirsty.
You could be attacked by sharks whilst in the water.
Getting wet will increase the body’s insulation against cold.
Is it advisable to jump onto the canopy of the raft?
Yes, as long as from not too great a height as it will save time.
Yes, as long as you laid on the top of the liferaft.
No, as you might injure yourself or someone under the canopy.
No, as if you fall through the opening you might go through the floor of the raft.
What is the main advantage of a davit launched liferaft compared to the throw-over type?
It is quicker to launch.
It is stronger than the throw overboard type.
It contains more equipment than the throw overboard type.
It allows the occupants to board without getting wet.
How is a throw-over liferaft usually secured on deck?
With a hydrostatic release unit.
With an atmospheric release.
With a heavy object as an anchor.
With a steel wire strop.
What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE?
A securing device on the lifeboat gripes that allows them to be easily unfastened.
A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even when there is weight on the rope.
A device that allows an inflatable liferaft to be deployed automatically if a ship sinks.
A cone-like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the lifeboat’s bow pointing into the wind.
What item of safety equipment is shown here?
An emergency position indicating radio beacon (EPIRB).
An inflatable liferaft.
A lifebuoy.
A float.
What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard?
Open the fiberglass cover.
Secure the painter to a strong point.
Pull the painter all the way out.
Activate the EPIRB.
Which of these statements is true?
If the ship is on fire we have to abandon ship.
We should only abandon ship when told to by the master or officer in charge.
We should bring important documents and personal belongings with us in the liferaft.
If the emergency alarm is ringing we have to go to the bridge.
What life saving appliance is pictured here?
A lifeboat.
A rescue boat.
A liferaft.
A lifejacket.
What would you expect to find near this sign?
Embarkation ladders.
Liferafts.
Emergency radio.
Escape shute.
What kind of liferaft is shown in this sign?
A rigid liferaft.
A disposable liferaft.
A davit launched liferaft.
A liferaft at the bow.
What does this sign mean?
Liferaft ahead.
Emergency muster station.
Lower liferaft to water.
Abandon ship.
Liferafts are sent for re-packing and checking every …..
5 years.
6 months.
10 years.
year.
Which of the following need not be tested weekly?
Lifeboat engines.
Engine intake flaps.
Watertight doors.
Liferafts.
Liferafts are designed so that only which of the following need be carried out by ship’s staff?
Re-packing every 5 years.
A visual check of the container for cracking.
Testing for correct operation every 6 months.
Checking that the water and rations have not deteriorated.
In a ro-ro ship, which of those listed is required at each vehicle access point?
A grappling hook on a line at least 20 m long.
A notice warning drivers of dangers.
A lifebuoy with self-activated light and a separate safety line with quoit or similar.
An inflatable liferaft, ready for immediate launch.
A person wearing a lifejacket is being recovered from the water, having fallen overboard. From the following, which would be the first action to take?
Throw a rope with a bowline loop, or a lifebuoy.
Float a liferaft down wind to the person.
Launch a rescue boat.
Any of these options, depending upon the actual circumstances.
The crew and passengers have abandoned ship in a number of boats and liferafts. Which is the best strategy?
Tie liferafts to lifeboats to form a number of independent groups.
Take as many persons on to liferafts as possible.
Take as many persons on to lifeboats as possible.
Use a motor lifeboat to «gather» all craft into one group.
What must evacuees do just before boarding an inflatable liferaft?
Call the bridge and ask permission to board.
Have a meal to sustain them during difficult conditions onboard the raft.
Make sure that the raft is inflated.
Remove their footwear.
What is the purpose of the «CANOPY» over the inflatable liferaft?
It is designed as a safety net to jump onto for rapid embarkation.
Its main purpose is to provide strength to the design of the raft.
It is designed to give protection against exposure.
It provides additional space for evacuees.
What is the painter used for on the davit launched liferaft?
To lower the raft to the water level.
The painter is only used on lifeboats, never on rafts.
For inflation of the raft by pulling on the painter, and/or for keeping the raft alongside the boarding area.
For repairing leaks sustained to the buoyancy chamber during launching.
For the purpose of SOLAS, what is an «Inflatable Liferaft»?
A liferaft which is kept inflated and ready for use at all times.
A raft kept on the bridge wing for rapid deployment when the man-overboard alarm is raised.
A life saving appliance which depends upon non-rigid, gas filled chambers for buoyancy and which is normally kept uninflated until ready for use.
It is an appliance for the rapid transfer of persons from the embarkation deck of a ship to the lifeboats.
What is the heliograph used for when you are in a lifeboat or liferaft?
To check the outside temperature.
As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun.
To warm the emergency food rations.
As a first aid burns dressing.
What does this picture show?
Automatic falls release arrangement.
A boathook ready for use.
The fall block on a gravity davit.
The boarding arrangements for a modern lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
An open lifeboat.
An open liferaft.
A dedicated rescue man overboard rescue boat.
An enclosed lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
An emergency lifeboat radio.
A man overboard light/smoke signal.
An EPIRB.
A red parachute rocket distress flare.
What does the picture show?
A freefall lifeboat.
An open lifeboat.
A high speed rescue boat.
A rigid survival capsule.
What does the picture show?
Quick release gear.
Hydrostatic release gear.
A lifeboat falls wires and hoisting winch.
A portable lifeboat engine.
What does the picture show?
A stored inflatable liferaft.
A container for storing lifejackets.
A lifeboat freshwater container.
A container for storing distress rockets.
What does the picture show?
The controls of an enclosed lifeboat.
The bridge automatic pilot.
The controls of a ship’s crane.
The controls of an open lifeboat.
What does the picture show?
The controls of a watertight door.
The controls of a lifeboat escape hatch.
The lifeboat brake and falls release cable.
The lifeboat engine starting levers.
What does the picture show?
Lifeboat fire extinguishers.
Enclosed lifeboat emergency air supply.
Breathing apparatus air tanks.
СO2 supply in case of fire.
The safety-management objectives of the Company should, among other things, include …
Continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection.
Hiring of outside training companies to conduct onboard safety training of its shipboard personnel.
Holding lifeboat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into the water every week.
Conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke free areas on board.
Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company?
By the state of cleanliness on board.
By judging the morale of the officers and crew on board.
Through interviewing officers and crew.
By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator.
Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives and should include, among other things …
Methods to lower the lifeboats.
Measures to mitigate identified risks.
Efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
Accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
What does «SOLAS» stand for?
Safe official lifeboat appliance signals.
Save our lives and ship.
Safety of life at sea.
Safe orderly lifesaving appliance system.
What does «ILO» stand for?
International Labour Organisation.
Intermediate Lifeboat Operation.
International Labour Operation.
Inoperative Lighter Overload.
What is the part marked with the square called?
A lifeboat fall.
A lifeboat painter.
A lifeboat davit.
A lifeboat catcher.
What type of boat is in this picture?
An open freefall lifeboat.
A fast rescue boat.
A liferaft.
A totally enclosed lifeboat.
With approaching heavy weather what precautions must be taken with lifeboats?
Remove all covers and secure the plug.
Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure.
Check and tighten all lashings.
Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.
Which of the following is not required when a pilot is boarding?
A lifebuoy with light.
A heaving line.
A lifeboat swung out on standby.
A bulwark ladder.
What is a gangway used for?
Loading cargo.
Getting into the vessel’s lifeboats or liferafts.
To allow safe access to the vessel.
For putting over deck cargo to allow access from the accommodation to the forecastle.
Which of these has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?
Launching & recovery of a survival craft.
Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned.
Manoeuvering the lifeboat in the water.
Which of these requirements, regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival craft, corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival craft during abandonment.
Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances that are capable of launching and recovering the lifeboat.
Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times can observe the survival craft and lifeboat.
Different type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival craft on board the ship.
If you had to board your lifeboat which of the following do you think is most important?
Carry your important documents such as passport and seaman’s book.
Wear as many layers of warm clothing as possible.
Drink a large cup of hot coffee or hot tea.
Keep all your belongings packed in a bag.
What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE?
A securing device on the lifeboat gripes that allows them to be easily unfastened.
A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even when there is weight on the rope.
A device that allows an inflatable liferaft to be deployed automatically if a ship sinks.
A cone-like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the lifeboat’s bow pointing into the wind.
Which of these requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in harbour.
Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and manoeuvered in the water at least once every three months.
For ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manoeuvered in water at least every six months.
All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
Where would you find details of your tasks and duties in case of an emergency?
In the muster list.
On posters at the lifeboat station.
In notices posted in the crew’s cabins.
In notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms, etc.
What is the part of the lifeboat indicated by the arrows?
The fall.
The gripe.
The on-load release.
The bowsing in tackle.
What life saving appliance would be found near this sign?
A GMDSS receiver.
A radar transponder beacon.
A lifeboat radio.
An Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB).
What does this sign mean?
Lower lifeboat to water.
Automatic release.
Lifeboat embarkation point.
Release gripes.
What does this sign mean?
Release brake.
Start engine.
Lower lifeboat.
Alter course.
What life saving appliance is pictured here?
A lifeboat.
A rescue boat.
A liferaft.
A lifejacket.
Which way will fluid pass through this valve?
From В to A.
From A to В.
In both directions.
From A to С.
What is component number 3 called?
A spring adjuster.
A spring tensioning washer.
A valve cover.
A spring plate.
What is «chatter» in a safety valve?
The first leakage before the valve opens.
A failure of a safety valve to re-seat.
A metallic hammering noise.
A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.
What is component number 3?
The cooling water inlet.
The lubricating oil outlet.
The cooling water outlet.
The air vent valve.
What are items «F»?
Flow controllers.
Thermostatic valves.
Filters.
Flow meters.
What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump?
To keep the oil temperature constant.
To absorb pump vibrations.
To keep the oil pressure constant.
To act as a high pressure safety valve.
When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are ….
at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling water supply is on.
not overheating, not leaking oil and that no white metal is spotted.
not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty.
not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there?
That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.
The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle valves are closed.
That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles are closed.
That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in addition to the supply capacity?
Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system.
Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off.
Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system.
The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of water is normal.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure standby?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stem tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe as measured over the measuring flange the output signal should be sent to a ….
balancing valve.
equaliser.
root extractor.
summator.
Which part is the valve guide?
Number 1.
Number 2.
Number 3.
Number 4.
Which part is the exhaust valve?
Number 1.
Number 2.
Number 4.
Number 6.
Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by …
a piston ring failure.
a burnt piston top.
a leaking exhaust valve.
All of the other options.
Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by ….
a defective fuel valve.
a low air pressure.
lubrication low pressure.
not using the auxiliary fan.
What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine?
A faulty fuel valve.
A cracked liner.
Rising scavenging air temperature.
Broken piston ring.
What is part number 5?
A double valve.
A three way valve.
A thermostat.
A controllable thermostat.
What is item «V»?
A flow control valve.
A viscometer.
A fine filter.
A steam trap.
What is item «M»?
The fuel flow meter.
The by-pass valve.
The magnetic filter.
The manometer.
What is the function of valve «PR» in this fuel circuit?
A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop.
A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.
A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature.
A constant pressure regulating valve.
When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve «D»?
At 08,00 hr and 17,00 hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.
Every 4 hours.
Twice a day.
Once a day.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
Fhere is a leakage in he lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
When does the exhaust valve «EV» open?
When the piston is at bottom dead point.
When the piston moves upward.
At the end of the working stroke.
None of the other options.
What is the function of drain valve «D»?
To release the air when the engine is stopped.
To drain the oil from the manifold.
To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion.
To drain the moisture from the manifold.
Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?
The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.
The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.
The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.
All of these options.
What are the components marked «M»?
Manometers.
Magnetic shut-off valves.
Microprocessors.
Flow meters.
What is the component marked «W»?
A water strainer.
A WAX by-pass temperature controller.
A water by-pass buffer.
A manual 3-way water by-pass valve.
When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler «CW» operated?
During normal running to keep the temperature constant.
In the case of a cooler tube leaking.
In cold climates to avoid moisture.
When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings.
When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed?
So the pumping action can blow the drains through.
To avoid the safety valves blowing.
To avoid air blowing in the bilges.
To prevent the compressor from tripping.
On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
It keeps the suction valves open.
It keeps the suction valves closed.
It keeps the delivery valves open.
It keeps the delivery valves closed.
What is the most important item of maintenance required to ensure maximum efficiency of the accommodation air conditioning plant?
Clean the central air conditioning fan unit intake suction filters.
Ensure always that there is sufficient Freon in the receiver.
Ensure the evaporator unit remains ice free.
Clean the sea water side of the condenser every 2 months.
What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with Freon liquid or Freon gas and why?
Chromium, it will overheat.
Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the Freon.
Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with Freon.
Copper, it has a harmful effect on the Freon.
Freon is being phased out gradually as a refrigerant. Why?
Because it is too expensive.
Because it is being replaced by more efficient refrigerants.
Because it has a damaging effect on the Earth’s ozone layer.
Because under certain conditions it is toxic.
Why is there an oil separator «OS» fitted as shown here?
Because Freon absorbs oil and it needs to be separated.
To separate the oil dragged with the Freon from the compressor.
To separate oil during compressor start-up.
To collect the oil before stopping the compressor.
If during your watch the air-conditioning compressor cuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to check immediately?
If the accommodation vent fan has tripped.
The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped.
That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser.
Ice formation on the evaporating unit.
Why is there a receiver fitted below the condenser of an air-conditioning unit unlike on the condenser of the domestic fridge system?
Because the air-conditioning does not run in winter climates.
To store spare Freon.
Because there is more chance of leakage and Freon escape.
Because the capacity is larger.
If refrigerant gauges are calibrated in Absolute Corresponding Temperature, can these gauges be used for any refrigerant in any refrigerating system?
Can be used for Freon 12 or Freon 22 only.
Can be used for any refrigerant.
Can be used for any refrigerant except AMMONIA.
Are calibrated for only one refrigerant.
In addition to pressure, Freon gauges are calibrated in:
absolute pressure.
absolute corresponding temperature.
superheated gas temperature.
saturated gas temperature.
When Freon is leaking from a refrigerating system, a halide torch flame will turn …….
blue.
yellow.
green.
orange.
An automatically controlled Freon-12 compressor will stop when the …………..
expansion valve closes.
expansion valve opens.
solenoid valve closes.
solenoid valve opens.
What is component G called?
The freon tank.
The water tank.
The compressor receiver.
The liquid receiver.
What is significant about an indirect refrigeration system?
It measures temperature in directly.
It uses a secondary refrigerant like brine to do the cooling.
It has an indirect circulation of cooling medium.
It uses ammonium instead of Freon as cooling gas.
Which four classes of atmospheric pollutant are regulated by Annex VI of MARPOL?
Halons and freons VOCs NOx SOx.
NOx SOx VOCsCO2.
NOx H2S CO2 Halons and freons.
VOCs H2S CO2 NOx.
Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?
Freon 12.
Freon 22.
Ammonia.
Carbon Dioxide.
A vessel is under pilotage approaching a European port. Who is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel?
The pilot.
The master and duty officers.
The traffic controller.
The pilot and the master together.
What are items «F»?
Flow controllers.
Thermostatic valves.
Filters.
Flow meters.
The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the corresponding output on the right of …………
a proportional controller.
a pure integrator.
a pure differentiator.
a proportional integrating controller.
This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller?
A proportional controller.
A proportional integrating controller.
A proportional differentiating controller.
A proportional integrating-differential controller.
These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a controller. What characteristics are shown?
The controller response output characteristics.
The integrator characteristics.
The PI characteristics.
The integrator differential characteristics.
For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here?
A pressure indicating controller.
A proportional integrating controller.
A PI differentiating controller.
A pneumatic indicating controller.
If the outlet temperature «Tout» is kept constant at 65 degrees °C and during normal sea speed the inlet temperature «Tin» is 62 degrees °C, what would «Tin» show during engine slow down?
Inlet temperature «Tin» will decrease.
Inlet temperature «Tin» will be kept constant by controller.
Inlet temperature «Tin» will fluctuate.
Inlet temperature «Tin» will increase.
What is the component marked «BUC»?
The Basic Unit Controller.
The Blend Unit Controller.
The Blend Unit Calorifier.
The Base Unit Calorifier.
Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?
The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.
The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.
The steam inlet and return bypass valves of the fuel heater.
All of these options.
Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree °C? Study the picture.
The blending unit BU.
The blending unit controller BUC.
The unit H.
The HFO daily tank.
What is the component marked «W»?
A water strainer.
A WAX by-pass temperature controller.
A water by-pass buffer.
A manual 3-way water by-pass valve.
What is the function of item «PC»?
Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid.
Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle.
Pressure Container activating automatic pressure release valve.
Piston Controller activating compressor piston movement.
What pneumatic control device is shown here?
A pneumatic flapper/nozzle assembly.
A pneumatic controller.
A pneumatic amplifier.
A pneumatic booster aggregate.
This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control engineering. It is ……..?
a pneumatic transmitter assembly.
a totaliser or summator unit.
a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier.
a pneumatic basic controller unit.
What pneumatic device is shown here?
A proportional controller.
A proportional transmitter.
A feedback amplifier.
A feedback controller.
If the length of «a» is equal to the length of «b» what will be the proportional band «PB» of this pneumatic controller?
0 %.
25 %.
50 %.
100 %.
If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will be open for …
100 %.
75 %.
50 %.
25 %.
This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB = 100 % is the graph shown in «a». What is the graph of PB = 50 %?
Graph b.
Graph e.
Graph d.
Graph f.
This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB = 100 % is the graph shown in «a». What is the amplification factor and the proportional band represented by graph T?
Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 %.
Amplification О, Proportional Band infinitive.
Amplification infinitive. Proportional band 0.
Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %.
Graph «d» of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller effecting valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE amplification. How does the system work?
It does not regulate the level at all.
It works with intolerable offsets.
It works with maximum range offsets.
It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL.
If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller?
3 psi.
6 psi.
9 psi.
12 psi.
If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW temperature transmitter and the Pu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree °C what happens to the Pu?
It will increase to 20 psi.
It will decrease below 9 psi.
It will increase above 9 psi.
It will decrease to 0 psi.
Between which values (expressed in psi) can the setting of the Sv (set value or desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?
Between 0 and 20 psi.
Between 2 and 2.75 psi.
Between 3 and 15 psi.
Between 0 and 15 psi.
Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the output pressure?
3 psi.
2 psi.
6 psi.
0 psi.
Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If variation on the input is 1 psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed in psi?
4 psi.
2 psi.
1 psi.
6 psi.
What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if Proportional B and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here?
1 psi.
Infinity, full open, full close control system.
Between 3 and 15 psi.
No response, nil.
Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 % and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation?
1 psi.
5 psi.
0.2 psi.
0.5 psi.
This characteristic shows output pressure of a pneumatic controller controlling water level. The level is fluctuating. What is wrong with the setting of the controller?
The span is too narrow.
The range is too large.
The proportional band is too small.
The amplification is too small.
Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system. Suppose the Proportional Band is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it?
20 %.
50 %.
100 %.
500 %.
What control equipment drawing is shown here?
An electric P-controller.
An electric differentiating amplifier.
An electric temperature measurement scanner.
An electric pressure transmitter system.
Which of the following statements is correct?
The resistance of a human body increases in a humid atmosphere.
The resistance of a human body is unaffected by humidity.
The resistance of a human body decreases if the applied voltage is increased.
The resistance of a human body is unaffected by applied voltage.
What is the normal resistance of the human body?
4,000 Ohms at 25 Volt.
5,000 Ohms at 25 Volt.
2,000 Ohms at 25 Volt.
5,000 Ohms at any voltage.
How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?
The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow.
The fuse located in the system’s neutral point will blow.
The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage.
The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance.
The ship’s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.
The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.
The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.
A connection box has been filled with salt water.
The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.
What is the total resistance of the three resistors shown in the diagram?
150 Ohm.
250 Ohm.
300 Ohm.
200 Ohm.
What will the total resistance of the four resistors shown in the diagram?
200 Ohm.
250 Ohm.
300 Ohm.
400 Ohm.
What is the total resistance of the two resistors shown in the diagram?
400.
300.
200.
100.
What resistance does RS have to be for the combined resistance of the circuit to be 50 Ohm?
100 Ohm.
200 Ohm.
20 Ohm.
50 Ohm.
An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4 400 W. What is the resistance of the heater?
220 Ohm.
11 Ohm.
22 Ohm.
110 Ohm.
When is it necessary to take into the consideration the internal resistance of a multi-meter?
When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very high.
When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very low.
When the frequency of the circuit become very high.
It is not necessary to consider multi-meter resistance.
What is the purpose of the circuit shown here?
To measure low frequent current.
To measure the resistance of RL.
To measure voltage E.
To calibrate resistance Rv.
If the resistances RL and Rv are equal, what will be the voltage Vm? (Assume R1 = R2).
E divided by R1 + R2.
E = Vm.
(R1*R2) + (RV*RL).
Zero.
What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?
A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.
А Т802 (Thermistor) probe.
A NiCr/NiAl – type К (Thermocouple) probe.
A mercury thermometer probe.
Why should an electronic digital meter be used to measure voltage in electronic circuits?
Because it’s easier to read.
Because it’s not affected by interference.
Because the voltage for electronic circuits can only be sensed by an electronic meter.
Because the input resistance of the meter is high enough not to affect the circuit under test.
What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?
The current decreases.
The current increases.
The current remains the same.
The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.
Electric current is defined as the flow of electrons through a conductor. This is measured as ……
voltage.
resistance.
inductance.
amperage.
The resistance in a wire decreases if …
the temperature of the wire increases.
the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.
the length of the wire increases.
the applied voltage decreases.
Voltage multiplied by current equals ……
resistance.
capacity.
power.
efficiency.
If the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant, the current will be ……
doubled.
halved.
remain the same.
quadrupled.
What is the function of component number 1?
To regulate the capacity over the triac.
To lower the inductance across resistance RL.
To regulate the firing of the diac diode.
To limit the voltage across resistance RL.
What is this circuit used for?
To test the back firing of the triac.
To test the opening voltage across the diac.
To regulate the power across resistance RL.
To regulate the voltage across component number 3.
Which of the following statements is most correct for a resistor?
An increase in temperature varies the resistance.
An increase in temperature has no effect on resistance.
An increase in temperature decreases resistance.
An increase in temperature increases resistance.
What is a high-pass filter?
A circuit that will only pass a high voltage.
A circuit that blocks a high voltage.
A circuit that will limit resistance.
A circuit that will only pass high frequency signals.
What is the purpose of the lines on this component?
To identify the type of component.
To indicate the resistance and the resistance variance of the component.
To indicate the resistance of the component.
To indicate the maximum inductance which can be applied.
Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralleled with another?
If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected.
Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.
The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.
In automation, RTD & CV stands for:
return time delay.
resistance temperature drop & control event.
resistance temperature detector and control valve.
None of these.
What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this electrical amplifier equivalent?
Resistance R1.
Resistance R2.
Voltage U1.
Voltage U2.
How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled?
By the alternator speed.
By the excitation current in the rotor.
By the excitation current in the stator.
By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.
A battery of dry cells consists of 8 cells connected in series. Each cell has an EMF of 1,5 Volt and an internal resistance of 0,5 Ohm. If the cells are connected to a resistance of 1,2 Ohm, what current flows?
1,8 Ampere.
2,3 Ampere.
2,8 Ampere.
3,1 Ampere.
What is the resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt?
24,2 Ohm.
9,09 Ohm.
44 Ohm.
11 Ohm.
What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?
A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.
A T802 (Thermistor) probe.
A NiCr/NiAl -type К (Thermocouple) probe.
A mercury thermometer probe.
What are items «F»?
Flow controllers.
Thermostatic valves.
Filters.
Flow meters.
What is part number 1?
The fresh water pump.
The fresh water generator.
The salt water generator.
The thermostat pump.
What is part number 5?
A double valve.
A three way valve.
A thermostat.
A controllable thermostat.
Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer «T»?
Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.
Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.
Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.
None of the other options.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the turbocharger?
ТЕВ.
TЕ.
ТЕ1.
ТЕ5.
If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change?
They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees °C).
They will remain the same.
They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees °C).
They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees °C).
What do you think should be the temperature on thermometer «T» during normal operation of this boiler?
45 to 50 degree °C.
60 to 65 degree °C.
90 to 100 degree °C.
125 to 130 degree °C.
Which of the fittings listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air bottle?
A thermometer.
A pressure gauge.
A safety valve.
A drain valve.
What will happen if the seat plate 5 is ground too much allowing valve disc 4 to open an increased amount?
The thermodynamic efficiency decreases.
The compression ratio decreases.
The maximum output pressure decreases.
All of these options.
How is the quality and supply of inert gas checked and recorded?
Using a portable oxygen analyser and U-tube, with an officer standing-by all the time.
In the engine control room at the main inert gas console, where an engineer should be standing-by all the time.
Using the oxygen content and IG pressure recorder located in the cargo control room.
Using a manometer and thermometer fitted in the main inert gas supply line.
Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank?
A drain valve (Spring loaded).
Quick closing shut-off valves (remote operated).
A thermometer.
A remote tank gauging system.
What is the correct name of part number 1 shown here?
A thermo-balanced expansion valve.
A thermodynamic expansion valve.
A thermostatic expansion valve.
A thermo-controlled expansion valve.
As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing?
A thermometer.
A manometer.
A temperature controller.
A temperature transmitter.
What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram?
A pressostat.
A thermostat.
A level switch.
Any of these.
The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero?
Because of the second balancing couple B.
Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D.
Because A and В couples are opposed.
Because the connections in A and В and in C and D are opposed.
Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have as characteristics that ………….
the current is calibrated by a compensation system.
between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.
thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated for.
minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated for by a regulator/compensator.
Frost appearing at the high pressure side of a thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system is probably caused by …
the refrigerator box being too cold.
a dirty or iced-up expansion valve.
the condenser being too cold.
the head pressure being high.
A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of ………. type output signals?
binary.
impulse.
analog.
digital.
The charge in a lead acid battery can be measured with which of the following?
An ammeter.
A hydrometer.
A thermometer.
A wattmeter.
A valve which is operated by an electric circuit is called a …
breaker.
thermostatic valve.
motorized valve.
solenoid valve.
Pressure can be measured by the use of a ….
bourdon tube.
bimetal strip.
flowmeter.
liquid in glass thermometer.
When a marine thermometer is used to take air temperatures, it should be hung …
in the wheelhouse.
in a sheltered position to leeward.
exposed to the weather.
in a screen sited to windward.
The temperature of the wet bulb thermometer falls according to the rate of …
relative humidity.
condensation.
evaporation.
dew point.
The most accurate sea surface temperature would be obtained from a ….
water sample obtained in a metal bucket.
water sample obtained in an insulated bucket.
thermometer in the engine room intake pipe.
thermometer lowered overside in a bucket.
Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic. How is this best heated prior to bending?
Heat in an oven.
Heat in boiling water.
Flame heat.
Hot air stream.
Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?
In an engine lub oil system.
In a fuel oil system.
In an engine jacket water cooling system.
In hydraulic ring main supply system.
In thermodynamic terms what is a «perfect fluid».
Fluid that remains unchanged through a working cycle.
An inert gas.
A fluid that cannot be compressed.
Fluid that exhibits similar characteristics to fuel/air mixture.
Thermoplastic type adhesives soften when subject to heat, are fusible and soluble. They are not suitable for?
Leather.
Wood.
Aluminium.
Fabrics.
If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?
There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.
There is an internal leakage on the engine.
Cracked cylinder head.
Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.
What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank?
To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse.
To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks.
To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.
To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils.
What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine?
I, III and IV.
II, III and IV.
I, II and III.
I, II and IV.
In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass?
Lube oil pump discharge lines.
Tank overflow lines.
Fresh water return piping and condensate line.
Sea water lines to overboard.
A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best be detected by …………
visual inspection of the filter elements.
a decrease in oil viscosity.
the pressure drop across the filter.
high lube oil temperature.
At which of the following settings would you adjust the main engine low lube oil alarm to activate?
Slightly below running pressure but before the stand-by pump cuts-in.
Slightly below running pressure but after the stand-by pump cuts-in.
Just before the low lube oil shut down operates.
At the same pressure as the stand-by pump cuts in.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating water present in the crankcase oil what action would you take?
Check all fuel tanks for water.
Check the purifier is operating efficiently.
Check for internal jacket water leaks.
Carry out all of the checks listed.
Due to a major leak, all of the main engine lube oil is in the engine room bilges. After repairing the leak how would you proceed?
Re-use the oil after purifying.
Pump the oil to the renovating tank, purify and re-use.
Re-use half of the oil and top up with new oil.
Pump oil to the renovating tank and renew entire engine oil charge.
If the main engine lube oil filters require constant cleaning which of the following is the most likely?
Fuel contamination of the lube oil.
Centrifugal purifier not effectively cleaning the lube oil.
Damaged or worn cylinder liners.
Damage to the engine bearings.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating increased alkalinity of the oil, what would you suspect?
Fuel contamination.
Incorrect oil has been used for topping up.
Jacket water contamination.
Sea water contamination.
At what pressure would you set the main engine stand-by lube oil pump to cut in?
Slightly below the running pressure, before the alarm sounds.
Slightly below the pressure setting of the low lube oil alarm.
At the same pressure setting as the low lube oil alarm.
Just before the low lube oil shut down operates.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating water contamination of the oil, what action would you take?
Increase the purifier hours and submit another sample.
Investigate possible source, purify and submit further sample.
Take no action until receiving the results of a second sample.
Renew the entire oil charge, repair the leak and submit a further sample.
If you are about to sail and receive a lube oil report stating dangerously lowered flashpoint, what would you do?
Depart as planned, investigate possible source, purify and submit further sample.
Delay sailing until you establish the safe condition of the lube oil.
Take no action until receiving the results of a second sample.
Delay the sailing and renew the entire oil charge.
If repairs had been carried out to the main engine lube oil pressure supply pump, what action would you take before starting the engine?
Renew the lube oil filter elements.
Make sure the stand-by pump is running.
Prime and run the lube oil pump for several minutes.
Ease the pressure relief valve to its lowest setting.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating a decrease in the TBN, what would you suspect?
Fuel contamination.
Incorrect oil has been used for topping up.
Combustion product contamination.
Jacket water contamination.
What is the most serious consequence of piston damage in a trunk piston type diesel engine?
Contamination of the lube oil.
Crankcase explosion.
Damage to cylinder liner.
Loss of engine power output.
Which of the following would indicate a cracked liner or cylinder cover?
Increased cylinder exhaust temperature.
Increased lube oil consumption.
Lifting of the cylinder head pressure relief valves.
Boiling up of the jacket water header tank.
Which of the following does not require to be entered in the Oil Record Book?
All lube oils loaded or discharged.
All bilge discharges at sea and alongside.
All fuel oils bunkered.
Fuel transfers from bunker to service tanks.
You notice that the lube oil consumption of a diesel engine has decreased markedly. What action would you take?
Take no action but continue to monitor lube consumption.
Reduce the load and increase the purifier running times.
Stop the engine and check for fuel or water leaks.
Check the jacket water topping up frequency and test a lube oil sample.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating a decrease in the TBN, what would you suspect?
Fuel contamination.
Sea water contamination.
Incorrect oil has been used for topping up.
Contamination with combustion products.
If a lube oil analysis report was received indicating seriously lowered flashpoint of the oil, what action would you take?
Increase the purifier hours and submit another sample.
Pump oil to the renovating tank, apply heating and purify.
Renew the entire oil charge, repair the leak and submit a further sample.
Take no action until receiving the results of a second sample.
When shutting down the main engine for a port stay which procedure would you follow?
Shut down water and lube oil pumps and close all start air and fuel valves.
Leave water and lube oil pumps running for the duration of stay.
Stop sea water and lube pumps and leave jacket water circulating, all valves left open.
Run jacket water and lube oil pumps for a short period then stop, close start air and fuel valves.
If the watchkeeping engineer reported the main lube oil filters required constant cleaning, what would you advise him to do?
Take a lube oil sample and carry out a test using the test kit.
Slow the engine and check all temperatures and pressures.
Run with both filters in use.
Check that the purifier is operating efficiently.
If you experience a crankcase explosion, how would you establish the cause?
Open up all of the crankcase bearings and check condition.
Feel round all suspect crankcase areas as, even after cooling, a hot spot remains detectable.
Run the lube oil pump and check for inadequate flow.
Turn the engine and locate the tight spot.
You have checked the oil viscosity in an alternator diesel engine with the lube oil test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is very low, what action would you take?
Stop the engine immediately, check for fuel leaks and renew the oil charge.
Maintain the engine in service but monitor the lube oil viscosity.
Stop the engine and part renew the oil charge, put back into service and retest regularly.
Stop the engine and batch purify the lube oil.
After a major overhaul and survey of an auxiliary diesel engine, which of the following would the surveyor wish to check before returning to service?
That all of the covers have been replaced.
That the lube oil charge has been renewed.
That the overspeed trip operates at the correct setting.
That the engine can be started and stopped from the control room.
What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator?
To prevent main circuit overload.
To prevent over speeding.
To maintain good load sharing.
To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
Over what length of time should a diesel powered vessel be slowed down from full sea-speed to manoeuvring speed?
10 minutes.
20 minutes.
1 hour.
4 hours.
How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil?
Direct from the lub oil main line.
From the camshaft lub oil line.
Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.
Independently.
How is the gear train lubricated on this Diesel engine?
Via the crankshaft.
Via the camshaft system.
By its own independent lub oil circuit.
Direct from the common lub oil circuit.
How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Diesel engine?
Via the crankshaft.
Via the camshaft.
Direct via the main lub oil line.
By its own independent supply system.
What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine?
Loop scavenging.
Uniflow scavenging.
Compounded scavenging.
None of the other options.
What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing?
Loop scavenging.
Traverse scavenging.
Cross scavenging.
Uniflow scavenging.
What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?
Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.
Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.
Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump.
Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.
Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance requirements, inclusive …
of a computerised planned maintenance system.
of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.
of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel.
of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine departments up to date.
Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralleled with another?
If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected.
Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.
The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.
What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use?
Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1 500-3 500 sec redwood 1).
Marine diesel.
Distillate diesel.
Gas oil.
What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel running at full speed?
420 degrees °C.
75 degrees °C.
45 degrees °C.
28 degrees °C.
What kind of fuel oil system is shown here?
A heavy fuel oil system.
A blend fuel oil system.
A marine diesel oil system.
A gas oil system.
Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?
The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.
The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.
The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.
All of these options.
On a small diesel engine how would pump «P» be driven?
By «V» belt from the crankshaft.
By an electric motor.
By gears driven from the crankshaft.
By gear drive from the main output shaft.
If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change?
They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees °C).
They will remain the same.
They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees °C).
They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees °C).
For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is used?
Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet.
When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0,87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier?
30 degree °С.
40 degree °С.
60 degree °С.
85 degree °С.
What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved?
45 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
45 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by application of steam heating.
65 degree °C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.
On board your vessel the main engine consumes hourly 1 375 litres HFO, the boiler 560 litres per hour and the auxiliary diesel 166 litres per hour. At what throughput shall you feed the HFO purifier?
3 700 litres/hour.
3 200 litres/hour.
2 600 litres/hour.
2 350 litres/hour.
What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank?
To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse.
To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks.
To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.
To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils.
Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier N° 2 is running MELO sump tank to MELO sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier N° 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible?
Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank.
ME Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank.
ME Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank.
ME Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank.
Where are you most likely to find this kind of valve fitted?
On ballast lines.
In diesel engine starting air lines.
On refrigerating machinery.
On sea chests.
In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted?
Main engine scavenge air manifold.
Ventilation air ducts.
Air compressors cylinder heads.
Auxiliary diesel crankcase door explosion relief valves.
Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value?
To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.
To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.
To avoid misfiring and starting problems.
To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply?
That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer’s standing orders, number of generators on load.
That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptable.
That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel.
That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel.
When two diesel generator sets are running in parallel during your engine room watch, what should you periodically check?
That both diesels are running at the same speed.
That both diesels have the same voltage and the same frequency.
That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR, same amperage.
That both diesels have exactly a 50 % share of the active load in kWatt.
What are the steps to be taken, in what order, to stabilise the governor of a diesel engine after overhaul?
Adjust speed P, then integrate, next differentiating, from 0.
Set integrating to MAX, than adjust speed P and differential D.
Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed upward.
Integrating and differentiating MAX, set speed from 0 upwards.
A cylinder of a large diesel engine is 900 mm in diameter and the firing pressure is 80 bar. What is the force exerted on the piston at this firing pressure?
508,680 kg.
635,850 kg.
487,334 kg.
299,074 kg.
A diesel engine cylinder diameter is 700 mm, its stroke is 1 200 mm, its IMP is 8,9 bar and its revolutions 120 RPM. What is the POWER developed per cylinder?
1 095 IHP.
2 052 ВНР.
1 633 shaft horsepower.
2 344 metric HP.
Temperatures next weekend …… dramatically.
are rising.
will rise.
have risen.
rise.
What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the generator main bus-bars?
To measure the generator output voltage.
To measure the generator output current.
To measure the temperature of the bus-bar.
To prevent bus-bar overload.
What can the component showed in the picture be used for?
As a frequency stabiliser.
As a voltage stabiliser.
As a temperature stabiliser.
As a light emitter.
A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as «flame failure». Indicate the most likely reason.
The fan motor is faulty.
The fuel oil temperature is too high.
The flame cell is dirty.
The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.
What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?
A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.
A T802 (Thermistor) probe.
A NiCr/NiAl – type К (Thermocouple) probe.
A mercury thermometer probe.
What kind of values can change continuously? Pressure and temperature are examples.
Digital values.
Humpless values.
Binary values.
Analog values.
The resistance in a wire decreases if ………
the temperature of the wire increases.
the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.
the length of the wire increases.
the applied voltage decreases.
Which of the following statements is most correct for a resistor?
An increase in temperature varies the resistance.
An increase in temperature has no effect on resistance.
An increase in temperature decreases resistance.
An increase in temperature increases resistance.
What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here?
Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet.
Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.
What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump?
To keep the oil temperature constant.
To absorb pump vibrations.
To keep the oil pressure constant.
To act as a high pressure safety valve.
What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system?
Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.
Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet.
When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are ….
at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling water supply is on.
not overheating, not leaking oil and that no white metal is spotted.
not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty.
not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?
The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.
The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level, the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.
The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.
The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers?
That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.
That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.
The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch.
The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.
When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in addition to the supply capacity?
Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system.
Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off.
Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system.
The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of water is normal.
All engine crankcase explosion investigations have shown only one thing in common, this is …..
the build up of oil vapour.
excessively high lubricating oil temperature.
evidence of a hot spot.
a wiped crankshaft bearing.
How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator?
By the condensing effect in the condenser.
By pumping or educting out the brine.
By the vapour eductor driven by the ejector pump.
By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.
To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic temperature transmitter fitted?
Channel 10.
Below 8.
Channel 5.
Channel 8.
What is item N° 1 of this pneumatic temperature transmitter?
The pneumatic amplifier.
The compensator.
The equaliser block.
The range control setting.
What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time?
The lights may be dimmed a little.
The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.
The generator may trip on overload.
Nothing special.
What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only?
The engine is overloaded.
The main engine RPM is too high.
Faulty fuel injector.
Cooling water restriction.
Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by ….
a defective fuel valve.
a low air pressure.
lubrication low pressure.
not using the auxiliary fan.
What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine?
A faulty fuel valve.
A cracked liner.
Rising scavenging air temperature.
Broken piston ring.
Which of the following would most likely account for a decrease in main engine scavenging air temperature?
An increase in air volume.
A rising air temperature in the air cooler.
A dirty turbine wheel.
A decrease in air volume.
What does a pressure drop across the scavenge air cooler indicate?
Increased engine room temperature.
Fouling of cooler air side.
Fouling of the cooling water system.
A reduced cooling water flow.
Exhaust temperature increasing on all main engine cylinders indicates …
The air system is fouled.
The exhaust system is fouled.
The scavenging ports are fouled.
Any of these faults.
What is the purpose of the expansion tank?
To store extra water.
To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.
To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.
To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.
Should water be circulated through the main engine during a port stay, and if so why?
No, as this would result in extra water consumption from main engine water leaks.
Yes, as this will maintain watertight condition of hoses and connections.
Yes, circulating the auxiliary jacket water will maintain the main engine temperature.
No, as this will prevent the auxiliary engines attaining the correct temperature.
If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen?
Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls.
Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls.
The engine cannot be started again.
The fuel pumps may be clogged.
If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen?
Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke.
The blower will slow down.
A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls.
The expansion tank will be emptied.
How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically through the cylinder?
By the uniflow system.
By the reverse system.
By the turbocharger.
By the scavenge port shape.
Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger?
Constant pressure type.
Booster type.
Impulse type.
Split type.
Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the turbocharger?
ТЕВ.
ТЕ.
ТЕ1.
ТЕ5.
Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the exhaust gas entering the exhaust gas turbocharger «ET»?
Under a vacuum.
Under high pressure.
Under slight overpressure.
Under atmospheric pressure.
How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?
In series with the cylinders.
In line with the cylinders.
In parallel with the cylinders.
In tandem with the cylinders.
If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change?
They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees °C).
They will remain the same.
They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees °C).
They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees °C).
In an «impulse type» exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine ….
are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold.
are driving only one single turbocharger.
are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.
are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold.
In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbocharger via …
the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.
the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups.
a separate manifold for each turbocharger.
nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe.
What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine?
An impulse type.
A constant pressure type.
A dual entry type.
A radial inlet type.
Main air compressors on motorships supply air to which of the following?
Fresh air ventilators.
Main and auxiliary diesel engines.
Turbochargers.
Control room blowers.
What is supported by the main shaft bearings?
The turbocharger.
The camshaft.
The propeller shaft.
The ventilation shaft.
How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?
In series with the cylinders.
In line with the cylinders.
In parallel with the cylinders.
In tandem with the cylinders.
Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the turbocharger?
To protect the blower side.
To protect the bearings.
To protect rotor blades from damage.
To protect the exhaust gas economizer.
The water cooling space on the turbocharger is damaged and you have no spares. The cooling water must be closed. What steps would you take to ensure least possible damage?
Run the engine at lower speed with the turbine drains open.
Open turbine drains and tell the duty engineer to pay special attention for abnormalities.
Remove rotor assembly and fit the sealing plate.
Shut off cooling water and run at reduced rpm.
Paint spraying has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running and the turbocharger was not protected. This could cause which of the following?
Higher than normal scavenging air pressure.
Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.
Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.
Higher than normal exhaust gas temperatures.
After how many hours would you consider changing the turbocharger bearings, even though all appears to be normal?
4 000 hours.
12 000 hours.
25 000 hours.
30 000 hours.
The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making «whoofing» noises. What might be the cause?
A strong counter current.
Heavy seas from astern.
A faulty turbocharger bearing.
One or more leaking exhaust valves.
The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by …….
the viscosity of the Kiel being high.
the wind and current being favourable.
the wind and current holding the vessel back.
poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.
Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger?
Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.
Worn bearings on the turbocharger.
Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.
Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.
With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What may be the cause?
Dirty nozzle ring.
The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.
The diffuser ring is damaged.
Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.
After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate. What has happened?
The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose.
The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.
The inlet filter is partly clogged.
The water drain for washing system is clogged.
During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The lubricating oil starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause?
Scavenge box fire.
High back pressure in the exhaust system.
Turbocharger failure.
Fuel valve seized in open position.
The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger?
Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.
Cause surging of turbocharger.
Cause higher air and gas temperatures after the turbocharger.
Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.
After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate. What is the most likely cause of this?
The securing bolts for the blower unit have loosened.
The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are only partially cleaned.
The air inlet filter is choked.
The water drain for the washing system is blocked.
Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the turbocharger?
To protect the blower vanes and bearings.
To prevent the rotor from becoming unbalanced.
To protect rotor blades from damage.
To protect the exhaust gas economizer.
During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause?
Scavenge box fire.
High back pressure in the exhaust system.
Turbocharger failure.
Fuel valve seized in the open position.
Why is the charge air cooled after leaving the charger?
To lower the exhaust temperatures.
To remove water vapour.
To allow more air to enter the combustion space.
To prevent overheating of the turbocharger.
In a constant pressure type turbocharger how does the exhaust gas enter the turbo charger?
Via a single, common exhaust gas manifold.
Via two or more exhaust manifold groups.
A separate manifold for adjacent exhausts.
Via separate individual cylinder exhaust pipes.
In an «IMPULSE TYPE» exhaust gas turbocharger, how do the exhaust gases enter the turbine?
Via a spacious, single exhaust gas manifold.
From both sides of the turbine.
Via manifold groups led directly and separately to the turbine.
Via manifolds into a common entry chamber.
Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger?
Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.
Worn bearings on the turbocharger.
Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.
Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.
During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause?
Scavenge box fire.
High back pressure in the exhaust system.
Turbocharger failure.
Fuel valve seized in open position.
You are experiencing major surging in the fresh water cooling system. What could be the reason?
The cooling water temperature is too low.
You have a cracked liner, or cover.
The expansion tank is empty.
The fresh water circulating pump is malfunctioning.
The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger?
Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.
Cause surging of turbocharger.
Cause higher air and gas temperatures after the turbocharger.
Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.
During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause?
Scavenge box fire.
High back pressure in the exhaust system.
Turbocharger failure.
Fuel valve seized in the open position.
What does the symbol in the picture show?
A capacitor.
A battery (single cell).
An AC power supply.
A switch.
The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following?
Its speed, frequency and number of poles.
Its voltage, current and impedance.
Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.
Its rotor emf, current and power factor.
One kilo-watt is equal to …..
1,25 horse power.
1,34 horse power.
1,50 horse power.
2,00 horse power.
What is the purpose of the capacitors used across the output of a DC power supply?
They act as a permanent load.
They prevent overload.
They filter out ripple.
They increase the output frequency.
What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator?
To prevent main circuit overload.
To prevent over speeding.
To maintain good load sharing.
To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
Voltage multiplied by current equals …..
resistance.
capacity.
power.
efficiency.
What is this circuit used for?
To test the back firing of the triac.
To test the opening voltage across the diac.
To regulate the power across resistance RL.
To regulate the voltage across component number 3.
A triac circuit is used to regulate the brightness of a 220 V 60 W bulb. What is the advantage of this circuit?
The power losses are almost zero.
The bulb will give about 10 % more light.
The bulb will last about 30 % longer.
The bulb will produce 30 % less heat.
Over what length of time should a diesel powered vessel be slowed down from full sea-speed to manoeuvring speed?
10 minutes.
20 minutes.
1 hour.
4 hours.
Power-driven vessel «A» sees power-driven vessel «B» as shown here at 6 miles range. What must vessel «A» do?
Reduce speed and monitor the compass bearing of «B».
If necessary, reduce speed or stop.
Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.
Keep her course, speed and carefully watch the compass bearing of «B».
Which of the following is a vessel «not under command»?
A vessel engaged in underwater operations.
A tug engaged in a towing operation.
A sailing vessel becalmed.
A power driven vessel with main engine failure.
You see a vessel displaying a black cylinder on her starboard yardarm. At night, what lights would the same vessel be showing, in addition to those for a power-driven vessel underway?
Two all-round red lights in a vertical line.
Three all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper and lower red and the middle one white.
Two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper one red and the lower one white.
Three all-round red lights in a vertical line.
What is a power-driven vessel?
Any vessel which is self-propelled.
Any vessel propelled by an internal combustion engine.
Any vessel propelled by machinery.
Any vessel other than a vessel propelled by sails.
What does a fog signal consisting of two prolonged blast mean?
A power-driven vessel underway stopped and making no way through the water.
A sailing vessel underway stopped and making no way through the water.
Both of the above.
Neither of the above.
When should a sailing vessel keep out of the way of a power driven vessel?
When both vessels are crossing.
When the power driven vessel is overtaking.
When the sailing vessel is overtaking.
When both vessels are meeting end on.
You sight a vessel bearing 3 points abaft the starboard beam. Sometime later, it is bearing 3 points forward of the starboard beam. Which of the following circumstances apply?
Two vessels with the same speed and course.
Two power-driven vessels meeting.
A vessel overtaking situation.
Two power-driven vessels crossing with no risk of collision.
Your power-driven vessel is fitted with radar and is underway in poor visibility. At what speed should you proceed?
Sea speed if there are no targets showing on the radar.
Sea speed only if in open waters.
Sea speed with the engines on standby, keeping a close radar watch.
A safe speed.
What is the name and application of this component?
A transistor for high power.
A high frequency diode.
A diode for high power applications.
A diode for light emitting applications.
What is the name of this component?
A high power diode.
A low power diode.
A high power transistor.
A high power halfwave rectifier.
What do these lights indicate?
A power-driven vessel of less than 20 meters in length underway.
A power-driven vessel of less than 12 meters in length underway.
A power-driven vessel engaged in trawling.
Power-driven pilot vessel on pilotage duty and underway.
What do these lights indicate?
A power-driven vessel underway.
A power-driven vessel underway when towing and the length of the tow exceeds 200 m.
A pushing vessel and a vessel pushed ahead as a composite unit.
A vessel being towed.
How are double bottom ballast tanks filled?
They are pumped in.
They are gravitated in.
They are gravitated in, then topped up with the ballast pump.
They are filled by a shore line.
The SMS should include procedures ensuring that ………… are reported to the company, investigated and analysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution prevention?
illness and injury.
cargo operations and ballast operations.
non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations.
crew changes.
What are the items «W»?
Ballast water tanks.
Hold deep wells.
Side waler tanks.
Cargo hold bilge wells.
Where are you most likely to find this kind of valve fitted?
On ballast lines.
In diesel engine starting air lines.
On refrigerating machinery.
On sea chests.
When are the high sea chests used?
When the ship is deeply laden at sea.
When the ship is in shallow water.
When the ship is in ballast condition.
When the ship is in polluted waters.
Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump would be the Fire and Ballast Pump?
410 m3/hour × 20 metres.
110/410 m3/hour × 70/35 metres.
140 m3/hour × 30 metres.
40 m3/hour × 55 metres.
What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings?
Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine.
Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.
Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak.
Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment.
What is the most important aspect of communication with the deck department?
Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.
Executing of orders from the bridge.
Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.
Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.
In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, in what location is the BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the supply terminals?
Between points 3 and 4.
Between points 5 and 6.
Between points 7 and 8.
Between points 9 and 1.
What is the proper name of the lamp shown here item N° 12?
A SL daylight saver lamp.
A TL fluorescent lamp.
A FX neon lamp.
A GE ballast lamp.
Prior to starting the cargo pumps for discharge of a tanker cargo, it must be ensured that …
all ballast tanks are inerted.
the pump room piping is inerted.
the inert gas plant is running on stand-by.
the inert gas plant is ready for startup.
Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that …
the tanker is loaded.
the tanker is in ballast condition.
the tanker is tank cleaning.
the tanker is en route.
What is the meaning of «slop tank» as defined by Marpol?
Segregated ballast tanks only.
Any tank where slops or sludges are collected.
The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fitted centre tank.
A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures.
What does the term «LCB» mean?
Longitudinal Centre of Ballast.
Lowest Centre of Buoyancy.
Lowest Cantilever Beam.
Longitudinal Centre of Buoyancy.
Which description given is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol?
Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below.
Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines.
Which is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast?
Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used.
The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast.
The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump.
The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank, pumped via the segregated ballast pump.
A new oil tanker of 20 000 tons deadweight and above, which satisfies the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with protective location as well as COW, may be designated as a ….
crude oil tanker.
crude oil/product carrier.
product carrier.
petrochemical/product carrier.
Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea?
Double hulls.
15 ppm oil filtering equipment.
A slop tank arrangement.
Segregated ballast tanks.
For new tankers of 20 000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such that, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements?
I, II, IV, VII.
I, III, IV, VI.
I, II, IV, V.
I, IV, V, VII.
New tankers of 20 000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise?
I, II.
II, V.
III, V.
IV, V.
According to Regulation 13,3 b, in which of these exceptional cases can ballast water be loaded into cargo holds of tankers?
I, III, IV.
II, IV, VI.
III, V, VI.
I, III, VI.
For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be included?
Segregated ballast tanks only.
Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks.
Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks.
Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
Under which conditions are fore peak tanks, after peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of CBT‘s for tankers?
Provided an oil separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board.
Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted.
Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured.
Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system.
If an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW?
The requirement for SBT does not apply.
The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply.
The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply.
The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply.
One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with ….
an oil content meter.
segregated ballast tanks and PL.
a crude oil washing system.
two separate slop tanks.
Every oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be provided with an approved Dedicated Clean Ballast Operating Manual. Which of these items must be contained in the manual?
I, II, III, IV.
I, II, III, V.
III, IV, V, VI.
I, IV, V, VI.
Existing oil tankers which comply at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full, provided which of these items apply?
II, V, VI.
I, II, VI.
II, IV, V.
III, IV, VI.
What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E – Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers?
To reduce the bending moments on tankers.
To reduce the shear forces on tankers.
To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers.
To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event of grounding or collision.
For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply?
I, II, VI, VIII.
II, IV, VI, VII.
III, V, VI, VIII.
I, III, VI, VII.
Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception?
For exceptionally long voyages, when the ship’s bunkers are depleted and weaker conditions are deteriorating.
In the event of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships.
Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats.
If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptured, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this.
What does this symbol show?
A three phase «Delta» connected motor.
A three phase «DC» connected motor.
A three phase «Y» connected motor.
A three phase compound «AC» motor.
What is the purpose of the circuit shown in the diagram?
To light the lamp when the coil is deactivated.
To operate the relay coil A with buttons 1 and 2.
To prevent relay coil A becoming overheated.
To change direction of the motor connected to coil A.
What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor?
At the rated current.
At 5-15 % over the rated current.
At 200 % of the rated current.
At 10 % below the rated current.
A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions would you take?
Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test.
Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger.
Disconnect all cables to the motor.
Use an «AVO» meter instead of a «Megger» for the test.
A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as «flame failure». Indicate the most likely reason.
The fan motor is faulty.
The fuel oil temperature is too high.
The flame cell is dirty.
The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.
An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the «over current» relay. What action would you take?
Increase the current setting on the «over current» relay.
Replace the «over current» relay.
Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.
In the «Ward/Leonard» method of DC motor speed control, how is the motor direction changed?
Reversal of generator polarity.
Reversal of motor field polarity.
By reversal of the rotation of the generator.
By switching the motor armature connections.
A six pole 50 Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm. What will the speed of the motor be at half load?
1 900 rpm.
475 rpm.
1 000 rpm.
975 rpm.
The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following?
Its speed, frequency and number of poles.
Its voltage, current and impedance.
Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.
Its rotor emf, current and power factor.
Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars?
Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor.
Because the bus bars will be short circuited.
Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage.
Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate.
Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.
Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.
Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.
All of these options.
Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by …..
current overload.
the wrong types of brushes.
the strength of the field.
any of these.
An earth fault on an electrical motor can be defined as an electrical connection between its wiring and its ……….
circuit breaker.
shunt field.
metal frame work.
fuse.
What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator?
To prevent main circuit overload.
To prevent over speeding.
To maintain good load sharing.
To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
What type of instrument can be used to locate an earthed field coil in a synchronous motor?
A voltmeter.
A frequency meter.
A wheatstone bridge.
An ohmeter.
What does the picture show?
Pump motors.
Cylinder heads.
Turbo chargers.
Injectors.
What is the purpose of the parts circled in red?
To assist the motor cooling.
Ventilation slots.
To assist induction currents.
To dispense with the cooling fan.
What is the purpose of the part circled in red?
To access the windings.
To show the markings of the motor.
The air cooling inlet.
To house the terminals.
What is the purpose of the component number 5?
To ensure smooth speed pick-up.
Motor cooling.
To absorb vibration.
To balance the motor.
What is the function of component number 6?
To ensure correct balancing of the rotor.
To seal the motor internals.
To provide ventilation.
To locate the bearing.
